Tuesday, 31 October 2017


Dear Students, as the exam of IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 is really close, just a month away, and you all must have already started to prepare yourself for the Examination. The preliminary examination is going to be held in December first week, it's high time to put the pedal to the metal, batten down the hatches and get yourself ready for IBPS Clerk Examination. You still have much of time, a total of 30 days to prepare for the preliminary examination. Follow the plan being provided by Crackbankexam/VirtuousCoaching, you will definitely be holding all the aces and would do great at IBPS Clerk Examination.

How to prepare for IBPS Clerk 2017 in 30 days: The three main subjects that you need to be excellent at are Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability and English Language.

Quantitative Aptitude

All that you need to do to score well in quantitative aptitude section is practice. Master yourself at the basic concepts and follow them well, as for banking exams basic concepts will come in handy rather than tricks. Choose the questions wisely and try not to get stuck on a particular question or topic for too long. Try focussing on attempting the maximum number of questions keeping in mind the accuracy with which you attempt the paper.

Reasoning

Reasoning can be a difficult section for most of the aspirants and it is important to solve the questions and at the same time, keep a watch on the time that is passing by. We've seen in the recent Banking Exams that this section was quite challenging and time taking for students. Continuous practice will help you deal with this section too as the solution hits the mind quickly. To ace the grade in reasoning, all you need to do is to practice and only practice. After all, practice makes a man perfect.

English Language

If you are good at vocab and reading then try to make your grip stronger on the reading comprehension and Cloze Test and then do the other miscellaneous topics like Error Detection, Para Jumbles, Phrase Replacement, Double Fillers, etc. But if you are good at grammar, do the miscellaneous topics first and Reading Comprehension in the end. The important topics for cloze test are subject verb agreement, preposition, and verbs. These topics may help you some other questions too that will be based on grammar. So make sure that you have these topics on your finger tips when you are to attempt the examination.

Content:

1. More than 20 topic tests for all subjects/sections.
2. 10 video lessons on the most important topics plus tips on how to attempt the exam,        bonus video.

3. Around 50 practice sets on all topics.

So, here is the 30 days plan for IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 that you have to follow from today onwards, i.e. 2nd of November.

Sr. No. 
Reasoning Ability
Quantitative Aptitude
English
Video Lesson
1
2. Test -1  
2. Test - 1
2. Test - 1

2
2. Test - 2
2. Test - 2
1. Reading Comprehension
2. Test-2

3
2. Test – 3
2. Test - 3
2. Test – 3

4
1. Blood Relations Set 
2. Test - 4
1. Percentage Set
2. Test - 3
1. Cloze Test Set 
2. Test – 4
1. Series
2.Simplification
3. Cloze Test
5
1. Inequalities Set
2.  Test - 5
1. Ratio &                      Proportion  Set
2. Test - 4
1. Error Spotting Set
2. Test – 5
1. Blood -              Relation
2. Percentage
3. Error -                Spotting
6
1. Coding – Decoding Set
2. Test - 6
1. Problems on Ages Set
2. Test - 6
1. Error Spotting Set
2. Test – 6

7
1. Direction Sense Set
2. Test - 7
1. Profit – Loss Set
2. Test - 7
1. Para – Jumbles Set
2. Test – 7

8
1. Ordering & Ranking  Set
2. Test – 8
1. Simple & Compound
Interest Set 
2. Test – 8
1. Para - Jumbles Set 
2. Test – 8

9
1. Syllogism Set 
2. Test – 9
1. Time & Work Set
2. Test – 9
1. Vocabulary Set 
2. Test – 9

10
1. Seating Arrangement Set
2. Test – 10
1. Time & Distance Set
2. Test – 10
1. Vocabulary Set 
2. Test – 10

11
1. Seating Arrangement Set
2. Test - 11
1. Quadratic Equation Set
2. Test – 11
1. Fillers (New Pattern)
2. Test – 11
1. Coding -            Decoding
2. Profit - Loss
3. Para-Jumbles
12
1. Puzzles Set 
2. Test – 12
1. Data Interpretation Set
2.  Test – 12
1. Fillers (New Pattern)
2. Test – 12
1. Syllogism
2. Time  &             Distance
3. Fillers
13
1. Puzzles Set 
2. Test – 13
1. Data Interpretation Set
2. Test – 13
1. Analogies Set 
2. Test – 13

14
1. Syllogism Set
2. Test - 14
1. Simplification
2. Test - 14 
1. Reading Comprehension Set
2. Test - 14 

15
1. Inequalities Set
2. Test - 15 
1. Number Series Set
2. Test - 15 
1. Error Spotting
2. Test - 15

16
1. Series & Sequence
2. Test - 16
1. Time & Work Set
2. Test - 16
1. Para-Jumbles Set
2. Test - 16

17
1. Coding-Decoding
Set
2. Test - 17
1. Quadratic Equation
Set
2. Test - 17 
1. Cloze Test Set
2. Test - 17 

18
1. Blood Relations Set
2. Test - 18 
1. Profit-Loss Set
2. Test - 18
1. Analogies Set
2. Test - 18
1. Inequalities
2. Quadratic -        Equation
3. Reading -Comprehension
19
1. Direction Sense Set
2. Test - 19 
1. Approximation Set
2. Test - 19 
1. Fillers (New Pattern)
2. Test - 19 
1. Seating  -          Arrangement
2. Data -                Interpretation
3. Analogies
20
1. Seating Arrangement Set
2. Test - 20
1. Time & Distance Set
2. Test - 20
1. Vocabulary Set
2. Test - 20

21
1. Puzzles Set
2. Test - 21
1. Percentage Set
2. Test - 21
1. Reading Comprehension Set
2. Test - 21

22
1. Ordering &                Ranking Set
2. Test - 22
1. 1. Ratio &                      Proportion  Set
2. Test - 22
1. Reading Comprehension Set
2. Test - 22

23
1. Series & Sequence
2. Test - 23
1. Data Interpretation Set
2. Test – 23
1. Cloze Test Set 
2. Test – 23

24
1. Puzzles Set 
2. Test – 24
1. Data Interpretation Set
2. Test – 24
1. Reading Comprehension Set
2. Test - 24

25
Full Test - 1
Full Test - 1
Full Test - 1
1. Direction -        Sense
2. Time &               Work
3. Vocab.
26
Full Test - 2
Full Test - 2
Full Test - 2
1. Puzzles
2. Ratio &
    Proportion
3. Grammar
27
Full Test - 3
Full Test - 3
Full Test - 3

28
Full Test - 4
Full Test - 4
Full Test - 4

29
Full Test - 5
Full Test - 5
Full Test - 5






Day 30: Revise all the topics.

                                     Best of luck !!!!!!!!!!

Monday, 30 October 2017


SSC(Staff Selection Commission) has declared the Tier-I Result of CGL (Combined Graduate Level) Exam 2017. SSC CGL Tier-I Exam was held from 5th august to 23rd august 2017.

On the basis of CGL(Tier-I) Exam, 2017, number of candidates provisionally qualified for Tier-II and Tier-III are :-
Tier-II (Paper-I and II) and Tier-III : 1,50,404 (Total candidates)
Tier-II (Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-III) and Tier-III : 10,311 (Only for post of JSO)
Tier-II (Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-IV) and Tier-III : 15,450 (Only for posts of AAO) 


The Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II & Tier-III) Examination, 2017 is tentatively scheduled to be held from 21.12.2017 to 24.12.2017.


 

 

 
Candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II (Paper-I, Paper-II, Paper-IV (General Studies (Finance & Accounts) and Tier-III

List-II : Candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II (Paper-I,Paper-II, Paper-III (Statistics)) and Tier-III

List – III : Candidates qualified in Tier-I for appearing in Tier-II (Paper-I and Paper-II) and Tier-III

Saturday, 28 October 2017



Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight candidate A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a row facing towards north direction for the selection test in Career Power Institute but not necessary in the same order. No two successive candidates are sitting together according to alphabetical order. For Example: A does not sit with B; similarly, B does not sit with C and so on. They all have different subjects like GK, History, Hindi, Computer, Reasoning, Geography, English, and Math but not necessary in the same order.
Either D or B sits at the extreme end of the row. A’s subject is Math and sits second from the left end of the row. D sits third to left of one whose subject is English. B sits third to left of G whose subject is Geography. G does not sit any of the extreme end of the line. The one whose subject is Reasoning sits second to left of F. E does not sit any of the extreme end of the line. The one whose subject is Computer is immediate neighbor of B. F’s subject is not Computer. The one whose subject is Hindi sits second to right of one whose subject is GK.

Q1. Which of the following candidate is sitting third to the right of one whose subject is Computer?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) C
(d) B
(e) F

Q2. How many candidate(s) sit between D and E?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) None of these

Q3. Which of the following is D’s subject?
(a) Reasoning
(b) Hindi
(c) GK
(d) Computer
(e) None of these

Q4. Who among following sits immediate left of B?
(a) A
(b) The one whose subject is Hindi
(c) H
(d) The one whose subject is Geography.
(e) F

Q5. Whose subject is Computer?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) F
(d) B
(e) H

Directions (6-10): Following are the criteria for selection of officers in an organization.
The candidate must
(i) Have passed Intermediate examination in first class with at least 60% marks.
(ii) Have passed Graduation degree in any discipline with at least 55% marks.(iii) Have completed a Certificate/Diploma/Degree course in Computer Science.
(iv) Be not less than 21 yr and not more than 30 yr of age as on 1.7.2008.
If a candidate satisfies all the above-mentioned criteria except.
1. At (ii) above but is a Post Graduate, case may be referred to the Managing Director (MD).
2. At (iii) above but has studied Computer Science as one of subjects of curriculum, case may be referred to the Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.07.2008. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows.
Give answer
(a) If the case is to be referred to MD
(b) If the case is to be referred to CEO
(c) If the candidate is to be selected
(d) If the information is inadequate to take a decision
(e) If the candidate is not to be selected

Q6. Minakshi is a B.Sc passed in first class with 64% marks. She had passed Intermediate examination in first class with 70% marks. She has also completed a certificate course in Computer Science with ‘B’ grade. Her date of birth is 23.9.1984.

Q7. Surbhi passed bachelor degree in B.A with 58% marks and has Computer Science certificate (2nd class). She had passed Intermediate in first class with 76% marks. She has completed 25 years of age in December 2007.

Q8. Arjun passed Intermediate examination in first class with 85% marks and B.A. in second class with 57% marks. He has completed a computer certificate course very recently. His date of birth is 26.4.1982.

Q9. Veer passed Intermediate examination in 2003 with 85% marks and B.Sc. degree examination in 2006 with 69% marks. He has studied Computer Science as one of the subject at BCA. His date of birth is 17.9.1984.

Q10. Manju is B.A. Graduate passed in second class with 56% marks. She had passed Intermediate in second class with 59% marks. She has also completed a Computer diploma with 56% marks. Her date of birth is 11.5.1982.

Directions (11-15): In each question, a set of six statements is given, followed by five answer choices. Each of the answer choices has a combination of three statements from the given set of six statements. You are required to identify the answer choice in which the statements are logically related.

Q11. Statements:
I. Some mango is apple.
II. Some lemon is tree.
III. All tree is apple.
IV. No apple is banana.
V. No tree is banana.
VI. All orange is banana.
(a) I,V,VI
(b) II,III,VI
(c) VI,II,I
(d) I,VI,IV
(e) None of these

Q12. Statements:
I. No sky is blue.
II. Some blue is red.
III. Some yellow is not pink.
IV. All pink is blue.
V. Some white is pink.
VI. All red is yellow.
(a) IV,V,VI
(b) I,VI,V
(c) I, II,VI
(d) II,VI,V
(e) None of these.

Q13. Statements:
I. All star are moon.
II. Some moon are sun.
III. No sun is earth.
IV. All earth is green.
V. Some green is tree.
VI. Some star is tree.
(a) I,VI,V
(b) IV,VI,I
(c) III,IV,VI
(d) II,I,V
(e) None of these.

Directions (14-15): Question consists of five statements followed by five conclusions. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements using all statements together.

Q14. Statements: Some math is English. All English is science. All science is hindi. No hindi is Economics. Some economics is Sanskrit.
(a) Some math is science.
(b) Some math is not economics.
(c) Some Sanskrit is economics.
(d) Some math is Sanskrit.
(e) Some math is hindi.

Q15. Statements: All bus is train. Some bus is car. All car is truck. No truck is tram. All aeroplane is tram.
(a) Some bus is truck.
(b) Some train is car.
(c) Some bus is not tram.
(d) No car is aeroplane.
(e) All train is aeroplane.

Friday, 27 October 2017

Dear Readers,



Reserve bank of India has released the Centre wise/Category wise cut off in respect of the preliminary online examination for the post of Assistant held on December 24, 2016


Click on the image to view the cutoff marks




ibps-so-notification

Dear Students,

IBPS has released the recruitment of Specialist Officers. IBPS SO 2017 is going to be an opportunity for those who have not been able to get through SBI, IBPS RRB and UIIC. Just make sure that you get yourself ready for the battle. Make this fight worth remembering. Give your best and we, Crackbankexam, will help you all on every step you take. 

Start Of Online Application: 07th November 2017
End Of Online Application: 27th November 2017
Preliminary Exam Dates: 30th and 31st December 2017
Mains Examination: 28th January 2018

                              For More Information Related To IBPS SO 2017

Thursday, 26 October 2017


Direction(1-5): In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space, followed by some choices of words given in options. You have to determine which of these words fits well in all making them meaningful and grammatically correct. Word can be modified according to the tense of the sentence keeping the meaning of root word intact. If none of these words fit well, mark your answer as none of these.

Q1. 
I. She walked across the stage with effortless ______.
II. At least he had the good ______ to admit that he was wrong.
III.The governor fell from ______ after being accused of tax fraud.
(a) reputation
(b) stairs
(c) steps
(d) way
(e) grace

S1. Ans.(e)
Sol. Grace- a way of moving that is smooth and attractive and that is not stiff or awkward, a controlled, polite, and pleasant way of behaving

Q2. 
I. The police are on ______ to have more security at the concert
II. Please give us enough ______ to prepare for your arrival.
III.Terms of the agreement are subject to change without ______. 
(a) time
(b) remand
(c) notice
(d) knowledge
(e) money

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Notice-information that tells you or warns you about something that is going to happen

Q3. 
I. Alexander the Great ______ much of Europe and Asia to his rule.
II. All rooms are just $100 a night, ______ to availability.
III.The photographer's principal ______ were poor immigrant workers.
(a) was
(b) subject
(c) prior
(d) related
(e) name

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. Subject- someone or something that is shown in a photograph, painting, etc, dependent on something else to happen or be true, to cause or force (someone or something) to experience (something harmful, unpleasant, etc.), the person or thing that is being discussed or described

Q4. 
I. I couldn't answer the phone because I was in the ______.
II. Sparks from the machine ______ onto the floor of the garage.
III. Heavy  ______ are expected later today.
(a) showers
(b) way
(c) car
(d) traffic
(e) put

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol.  Showers- a device that produces a spray of water for you to stand under and wash your body, a brief fall of rain or snow over a small area

Q5.
I. She had to ______ flying in various weather conditions before she could get her pilot's license.
II. Grandmother taught us to ______ good manners.
III. I'm sure you'll learn your lines for the play with enough ______.
(a) give up
(b) learn
(c) time
(d) practice
(e) dedication

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Practice- to do something again and again in order to become better at it, to do (something) regularly or constantly as an ordinary part of your life

Directions (6-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (e) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q6. A large number of poor people are (a)/ dependent on the environment for their (b)/ day-to-day activities and therefore more focus on improved (c)/ environmental quality can push income growth on a sustainable basis.(d)/ No error (e )/

S6. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error  
Q7. Over a dozen States have (a)/  been, or are, affected (b)/ Naxalite activity to (c)/  varying degrees (d)/ No error (e )/

S7. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error

Q8. There are already unresolved issues (a)/  and allegations against the EC on  (b)/ respect to electronic voting machines and its probity in (c)/ conducting an election in a crucial State is now in doubt.( d)/ No error (e )/

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. and allegations against the EC "with"
in respect of (or with respect to) means as regards; with reference to.

Q9. India is not  stranger to threats to freedom  (a)/ of expression whether in art and movies or (b)/  in news and academic publishing, whether from (c)/  organized civilian groups or from the government (d)/ No error (e )/

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. India is no stranger to threats to freedom

Q10. There is not even a bad provision (a)/ in the law that bars criticism (b)/ of the government, whether (c)/  in newspapers and in films (d)/ No error (e )/

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. in newspapers "or" in films - whether-or case- You can use a clause beginning with whether after a reporting verb such as know, ask, or wonder. You use whether when you are mentioning two or more alternatives. You put whether in front of the first alternative and or in front of the second one.

Q11.  The Centre reportedly plans to table (a)/a Bill soon that would enable (b)/ power consumers to  (c)/  choose its distribution utility (d)/ No error (e )/

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. choose their distribution utility

Q12. The political executive needs to walk (a)/ the talk on retail competition in power, (b)/  and fast-forward (c)/  distribution reforms (d)/ No error (e )/

S12. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error

Q13. To accelerate growth, India needs (a)/ to built infrastructure, but finance (b)/  has not really been (c)/ an over-riding constraint (d)/ No error (e )/

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. to build infrastructure, but finance

Q14. Clear conceptualization, time-bound (a)/ execution and completion of  (b)/ projects will bring down costs, raise (c)/  productivity and enhancing competitiveness  (d)/ No error (e )/

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. productivity and "enhance" competitiveness

Q15. According to a recent report of the Lancet Commission (a)/ of Health and Pollution, India lead  (b)/ the world in pollution-related premature deaths, (c)/  accounting for 2.51million of the nine million worldwide in 2015 (d)/ No error (e )/

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. of Health and Pollution, India "leads"

Wednesday, 25 October 2017

Dear Readers,
sbi-po-cut-off

SBI PO MAINS 2017 SCORE CARD AND CUT OFF IS OUT. CHECK YOUR SBI PO MAINS SCORE 

State Bank of India (SBI) has released the Mains Score Card and Cut Off for SBI Probationary Officers (POs) 2017-18. The preliminary exam was held on April/May 2017 followed by mains exam for the same on 04th June 2017. Bankersadda and Adda247team congratulate those candidates who got selected for SBI PO and those who are not selected don't get dishearten as this is the start of the year and you have a huge lineup of exams ahead. 

SBI PO Mains Cut Off given below:-

SCSTOBCGENOHVIHI
Objective Test40404050404040
Descriptive Type Test (English Language)(Evaluated only for those candidates who have qualified in each level of the Objective Test)17.517.517.52017.517.517.5
Minimum marks to be secured to be shortlisted for GE-cum Interview 
(Objective + Descriptive Test)
62.562.579.589.2562.588.0962.5
Total : GE + Interview18181820181818
Total marks secured by last ranked selected candidate(Out to 100)38.9528.8840.8346.5937.2446.1132.95

                              Check Your SBI PO Mains Score Card

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