Showing posts with label IBPS PO. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IBPS PO. Show all posts

Sunday, 26 November 2017



Q1. Sivalingam Sathish Kumar related to which sports- Weightlifting
Q2. Paolo Gentiloni is Prime Minister of - Italy
Q3. Which country will hold the G7 presidency summit 2018- Canada
Q4. What is the meaning of "S" in SWIFT- (Society) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
Q5. RV Rahul related to which sports- Weightlifting
Q6. Bandhan Bank Ltd. is an Indian banking and financial services company headquartered in Kolkata Bandhan, which started as a- Micro-Finance
Q7. SEAC stands for- State Expert Appraisal Committee
Q8. Panna National Park located in which state- Madhya Pradesh
Q9. Where is the headquarter of City Union Bank- Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu
Q10. What is the meaning of LTV in Baning and Financial World- Loan-to-Value
Q11. Dudhawa Dam is built across- Mahanadi River
Q12. The World Economic Outlook (WEO) published by- International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Q13. Which country has won U-17 FIFA world cup- England
Q14. 12th November is celebrated as- World Pneumonia Day
Q15. Fugdi is a Goan folk dance is related to which state- Goa
Q16. How much fund for MNREGA in Budget 2017-18- Rs48,000 crore
Q17. Tallinn is capital city of- Estonia
Q18. MV Sridhar died recently. He was a- Crickter
Q19. Head of merger of public sector banks- Arun Jaitley
Q20. One Question related to KCC
Q21. The Book ‘India 2017 Yearbook" is authored by- Rajeev Mehrishi
Q22. The ease of doing business report published by- World Bank
Q23. What is the meaning of "U" in AMRUT- Urban (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation)
Q24. Headquarters of Amnesty International- London, UK
Q25. IPPB maximum deposit limit is- Rs 1 Lakh
Q26. Headquarters of International Weightlifting Federation situated in- Budapest, Hungary
Q27. One Questions related to recapitalization by RBI
Q28. The 2018 Commonwealth Games 2018 will be held in- Australia
Q29. which country will be the world's largest economy by 2050- China
Q30. The budget provided NABARD with an additional budget- Rs20,000 crore 



IBPS PO Mains 2017 Recruitment Exam is over, Now it's time for the much awaited IBPS  PO  Mains Exam Analysis & Review (26th Nov 2017). Many students have appeared for this exam today and this brings them to a step closer in their journey of getting a Job in govt. sector. Without wasting any moment, let's get straight to the analysis for which you are all waiting for. Overall the exam was of a Difficult Level level. No questions were asked from computer aptitude. There were many new types of questions introduced in the reasoning and English section. Students found reasoning section to be exceptionally difficult and in such a scenario accuracy is the key to crack the exam.

IBPS PO Mains 2017 exam had 4 sections in the objective test of 200 marks - Reasoning and Computer Aptitude, English Language, Data Analysis and Interpretation, and General Economy and Banking Awareness. Each section had its particular time limit and overall the IBPS PO Mains Paper was fr 3 hours. This time there was also a test of Descriptive Writing after the objective paper.

IBPS PO Mains 2017-18 Exam ANALYSIS (OVER-ALL):


SECTIONSGOOD ATTEMPTS (Marks)
Reasoning and Computer Aptitude16-19
English Language12-14
Data Analysis and Interpretation19-21
General Economy and Banking Awareness24-28
TOTAL74-78


Data Analysis and Interpretation ( Moderate-Difficult )

This section had 35 questions for 60 marks with a time limit of 45 minutes.  The inequality questions were based on "Quantity 1 and Quantity 2 Pattern and among the set of 5 questions of inequality 2 questions were based on diagrams. There were 3 sets of DI with 4 questions in each of the set. Following were the types of DI:
  • Tabular (Missing) +Bar
  • Tabular
  • Caselet
The questions were:

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Data Interpretation15 Difficult
Data Sufficiency5 Difficult
Wrong Number Series5Moderate-Difficult
Inequality (Q1, Q2 Type)5Moderate-Difficult
Miscellaneous5Moderate-Difficult
Total35Moderate-Difficult

English Language (Difficult)

This section had 35 questions for 40 marks with a time limit of 40 minutes. There were many new introductions in new pattern questions in English Section of this exam. The cloze test questions asked were of a totally new pattern, where there were two possible answers against a blank.There were new types of connector questions asked in this exam, where 2 words were given and five sentences and students had to identify the combination of sentences that can be connected using the given two connecting words. Error Detection questions also came with a twist, as in a sentence there was a part marked in bold which was grammatically correct and the student had to identify the erroneous part in the rest of the sentence.

With such a difficulty level it is best to stay calm and first invest time in reading the directions properly. There were 2 reading comprehensions with 5 questions in each set.

Topic
No. of Questions
Level
Reading Comprehension 10Difficult
Cloze Test5Moderate
Error Detection5Moderate-Difficult
Rephrasing Sentence to correct grammatical form4Difficult
Connector Usage5Moderate-Difficult
Double Filler
2Moderate
Para Jumble (New Pattern)4Difficult
Total
35
Difficult

Reasoning and Computer Aptitude  (Difficult)

The level of reasoning was very Difficult.  There were NO Questions asked from Computer Aptitude. This year in IBPS PO Mains Exam there were around 10 questions of logical reasoning which includes course of action, cause and effect, conclusion and inference. 1-2 small para puzzles were also there, however, these had less matter to read and deduct from they were really tricky when compared to a lengthy one. Following were the types of puzzles asked:
  • Linear (North-South) 2 Variable
  • Small-Para Puzzles
  • Circular (with uncertain information as the number of people in the seating arrangement was not given e.g. more than 10 people are sitting on a circular table)
  • Figure Based Puzzle

The questions were:

Topic
No. of Questions
Level
Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles 
15
Difficult
Logical Reasoning
10
Difficult
Coded Blood Relation
4
Difficult
Coded Direction Sense
5
Difficult
Input-Output
5
Difficult
Data Sufficiency
2
Difficult
Micellaneous
4
Difficult
Total
45
Difficult


General Economy and Banking Awareness (Moderate)
The level of this question was Moderate when compared to the rest of the exam. There were around 3 questions from Budget and 3-4 questions from static awareness. Rest was Current Affairs and Banking Awareness where number of questions from Banking awareness was more than current affairs.

Descriptive Writing Test
English Language (Letter & Essay Writing) for 25 marks, time limit 30 minutes. There were 3 Essays and 3 Letter Writing Topics from which a candidate has to choose:

Essay topic
1. Which reform in Indian education can be compared with International level
2. Advantages and Disadvantages of Cashless economy
3. Effects of gadets on intellectual capabilities of humans

Letter Writing
1. Write a Letter to you friend encouraging and advising him to plan his own start-up
2. Letter to your office colleague
3. Write a letter to the branch manager requesting him to block your credit card as you've lost it and ask him to issue you a new card.


Tuesday, 24 October 2017


Directions (1-5): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? 

Q1. 177,     170,     159,     146,     ? ,     110
(a) 132
(b) 106
(c) 129
(d) 127
(e) None of these

Q2. 2,     3,     11,     38,     ?  ,     227
(a) 402
(b) 182
(c) 227
(d) 168
(e) 102

Q3. 7,     17,     54,        ?,        1098,     6591
(a) 204
(b) 212
(c) 223
(d) 219
(e) None of these

Q4. 55,     109,     ? ,     433,     865,     1729
(a) 279
(b) 372
(c) 217
(d) 318
(e) None of these

Q5. 1/2,     1,     1 1/2,     2,     2 1/2,     3,     ? 
(a) 3 1/2
(b) 2 1/3
(c) 4
(d) 3 1/4
(e) None of these


Q6. P and Q started a business by investing Rs. 45,000 and Rs.54,000 respectively. After four months R joined the business with a capital of Rs. 30,000. After two more months Q left the business with his capital. At the end of the year P got a share of Rs. 13,500 in the profit. What is the total profit earned?
(a) Rs 26800
(b) Rs 27600
(c) Rs 28600
(d) Rs 29200
(e) none of these


Q7. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs. 7,200 in six years at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 2 years? 
(a) Rs. 1,020
(b) Rs. 1,055
(c) Rs. 2,050
(d) Rs. 1,025
(e) None of these


Q8. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is increased by 100%. The resultant fraction is 1 11/19. What was the original fraction ? 
(a) 15/19
(b) 13/19
(c) 5/9
(d) 4/9
(e) None of these


Q9. At present, Meena is eight times her daughter’s age. Eight years from now, the ratio of the ages of Meena and her daughter will be 10 : 3 respectively. What is Meena’s present age ? 
(a) 32 yr
(b) 40 yr
(c) 36 yr
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of the above


Q10. An amount of money is to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by C is Rs. 4,000 more than the amount received by B, what will be the total amount received by A and B together ?
(a) Rs. 8000                                  
(b) Rs. 12,000                      
(c) Rs. 16,000
(d) Can’t be determined      
(e) None of these


Directions (11-15): Given below is the table which shows the 5 products sold by a manufacturer, % discount offered on marked price and % profit earned on cost price. 



Q11. What is the ratio of Marked price and cost price of article B. 
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 7 : 4
(d) 9 : 5
(e) 7 : 6

Q12. If total profit on selling 5 units of E type product is 210 then find the marked price per unit of article E. 
(a) 126
(b) 175
(c) 189
(d) 168
(e) 133

Q13. If cost price of product A and D is same then find the ratio of marked price of product A to the marked price of product D. 
(a) 255 : 256
(b) 143 : 144
(c) 178 : 189
(d) 160 : 163
(e) 233 : 224

Q14. If marked price of article A is 180 then find the cost price of article A. 
(a) 64
(b) 72
(c) 128
(d) 122
(e) 144

Q15. Percentage of profit earned on product E is what percent more than percentage of profit earned on product B. 
(a) 66 2/3%
(b) 33 1/3%
(c) 75%
(d) 87.5%
(e) 14%



Thursday, 12 October 2017


Directions (1-5): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q1. 3.6 + 36.6 + 3.66 + 0.36 + 3.0 = ?
(a) 44.22
(b) 77.22
(c) 74.22
(d) 47.22
(e) None of these

Q2. 23 × 45 ÷ 15 = ?
(a) 69
(b) 65
(c) 63
(d) 71
(e) None of these

Q5. 83% of 2350 = ?
(a) 1509.5
(b) 1950.5
(c) 1905.5
(d) 1590.5
(e) None of these

Directions (6-10): In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer:
(a) If x < y
(b) If x > y
(c) If x ≥ y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Q6. I. 2x² - 7x+ 3 = 0
 II. 2y² - 7y + 6 = 0

Q7. I. 4x² + 16x +15 = 0
 II. 2y² + 3y + 1 = 0

Q8. I. 9x² - 45x + 56 = 0
 II. 4y² - 17y + 18 = 0

Q9. I. 2x² + 11x + 14 = 0
 II. 2y² + 15y + 28 = 0

Q10. I. 6x² + 11x + 4 = 0
 II. 4y² - 7y – 2 = 0

Q11. Sushil got 103 marks in Hindi, 111 marks in Science, 98 marks in Sanskrit, 110 marks in Maths and 88 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if Sushil scored 85 percent marks in all the subjects together, what are the maximum marks of each subject?
(a) 110
(b) 120
(c) 115
(d) 100
(e) None of these

Q12. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a square field along its perimeter at the speed of 39.6 km/hr in 1 min 20 sec. What is the area of the field?
(a) 52900 sq. m
(b) 44100 sq. m
(c) 48400 sq. m
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q13. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together? 
(a) 720
(b) 1440
(c) 5040
(d) 3600
(e) 4800

Q14. A committee of five members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6 research associates. In how many different ways can this be done if the committee should have all the 4 professors and 1 research associate or all 3 trainees and 2 professors? 
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 12
(e) None of these

Q15. In a container there are 28 eggs out of which 8 eggs are rotten. If two eggs are chosen at random, what will be the probability that atleast one egg is rotten? 
(a) 94/189
(b) 95/187
(c) 93/189
(d) 97/189
(e) None of these



Batch for IBPS PO/Clerk & RRB NTPC 2017 Starts From 16th October 2017. For Any Query Call : 9828097824.

Directions (1-5): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.

Q1. (18.001)3= ?
(a) 5830
(b) 5500
(c) 6000
(d) 6480
(e) None of these
Q2. (9999 ÷ 99) ÷ 9 = ?
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 6
(d) 11
(e) 20

Q3. 22.005% of 449.999 = ?
(a) 85
(b) 99
(c) 125
(d) 75
(e) 150

Q4. 5554.999 ÷ 50.007 = ?
(a) 111
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 50
(e) 125

Q5. 23.001 × 18.999 × 7.998 = ?
(a) 4200
(b) 3000
(c) 3496
(d) 4000
(e) 2500

Q6. Raman’s present age is three times his daughter’s and 9/13  times of his mother’s present age. The sum of the present ages of all three of them is 125 years. What is the difference between the present ages of Raman’s daughter and Raman’s mother?
(a) 45 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 50 years
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q7. The sum of the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square is equal to 272 cm. The diameter of the circle is 56 cm. What is the sum of the areas of the circle and the square?
(a) 2464 sq cm
(b) 2644 sq cm
(c) 3040 sq cm
(d) cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q8. The largest and the second largest angle of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3.The smallest angle is half the largest angle. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest angles of the triangle?
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 40°
(d) 20°
(e) None of these

Q9. Kamya purchased an item for Rs 46,000 and sold it at a loss of 12 percent. With that amount, she purchased another item and sold it at a gain of 12 percent. What was her overall gain/loss?
(a) Loss of Rs 662.40
(b) Profit of Rs 662.40
(c) Loss of Rs 642.80
(d) Profit of Rs 642.80
(e) None of these

Q10. The call rate of a SIM company A is one paisa for every three seconds. Another SIM for company B charges 45 paise per minute. A man talked for 591 seconds from the SIM of company A and 780 seconds from the SIM of company B. What would be the total amount he spent?
(a) Rs 7.80
(b) Rs 7.40
(c) Rs 7.46
(d) Rs 7.82
(e) Rs 8.46

Directions (11-15): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

Q11. 32, 49, 83, 151, 287, 559, ?
(a) 1118
(b) 979
(c) 1103
(d) 1120
(e) None of these

Q12. 462, 552, 650, 756, 870, 992, ?
(a) 1040
(b) 1122
(c) 1132
(d) 1050
(e) None of these

Q13. 15, 18, 16, 19, 17, 20, ?
(a) 23
(b) 22
(c) 16
(d) 18
(e) None of these

Q14. 1050, 420, 168, 67.2, 26.88, 10.752, ?
(a) 4.3008
(b) 6.5038
(c) 4.4015
(d) 5.6001
(e) None of these

Q15. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(a) 343
(b) 280
(c) 335
(d) 295
(e) None of these

Tuesday, 10 October 2017


निर्देश(1-5): निम्‍नलिखित प्रश्‍न नीचे दिये गये तीन अक्षर वाले पांच शब्‍दो पर आधारित हैं।

HIS MAN XUV NET POS
(ध्‍यान दें- दिये गये निर्देशों का प्रयोग करके बनाये गये शब्‍द अंग्रेजी के अर्थपूर्ण शब्‍द हो सकतें है अथवा नहीं भी)।

1. यदि सभी शब्‍दो के पहले और तीसरे अक्षरों को आपस में बदल दिया जाये तो अंग्रेजी के कितने अर्थपूर्ण शब्‍द बनेंगे?
a. कोई नहीं      b. एक
c. दो             d. तीन
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

2. यदि सभी शब्‍दों के पहले अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला के पूर्व अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये और सभी शब्‍दों के तीसरे अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला के अगले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये तो इस प्रकार बने कितने शब्‍दो में एक से अधिक स्‍वर होंगे?
a. कोई नहीं                b. एक
c. दो                       d. तीन
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

3. यदि सभी शब्‍दों के पहले और दूसरे अक्षर को आपस में बदल दिया जाता है, तो अंग्रेजी के कितने अर्थपूर्ण शब्‍द बनेंगे?
a. एक            b. दो
c. तीन            d. तीन से अधिक
e. कोई नहीं

4. यदि प्रत्‍येक शब्‍द में सभी अक्षरों को अंग्रेजी वर्णामाला के अनुसार व्‍यवस्‍थित (शब्‍द के भीतर) किया जाये तो इस प्रकार बने कितने शब्‍द अपरि‍वर्तित रहेंगे?
a. कोई नहीं                b. एक
c. दो                       d. तीन
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

5. अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में तीसरे शब्‍द के दूसरे अक्षर और पांचवे शब्‍द के तीसरे अक्षर के बीच कितने शब्‍द हैं?
a. VII          b. V
c. I              d. II
e. IV

दिशा-निर्देश(6-8): निम्न जानकारी का अध्ययन करें और प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।
P, Q की मां है| R, P का पति है| S, Q का अकेला भाई है| T, S के साथ विवाहित है| U, T का अकेला बच्चा है| S के कोई बहन नहीं है। V, R का पिता है|

6. यदि R के कोई भी पोता नहीं है, तो U, Q से कैसे संबंधित है?
a. निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता है  b. सिस्टर-इन-लॉ
c. बहू                                d. भतीजी
e. भतीजा

7. R, T से कैसे संबंधित है?
a. चाचा          b. निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता है
c. ससुर           d. भतीजा
e. ब्रदर-इन-लॉ

8. Q, V से कैसे संबंधित है?
a. पिता           b. भतीजा
c. ब्रदर-इन-लॉ    d. भाई
e. पोता

निर्देश(9-10): निम्‍नलिखित जानकारी को पढ़ें और दिये गये प्रश्‍नों के उत्‍तर दें-
A#B का अर्थ है B, A के दांयीं ओर 5मी की दूरी पर है।
A$B का अर्थ है B, A के 10मी उत्तर में है।
A*B का अर्थ है B, A के 20मी बांयीं ओर है।
A@B का अर्थ है B, A के 15मी दक्षिण में है।
प्रत्‍येक प्रश्‍न में बांयीं ओर से पहला व्‍यक्‍ति बांयीं ओर देख रहा है।

9. दी गयी जानकारी Y@S*P के अनुसार P, Y से कितनी दूर और किस दिशा में है?
a. 5 मी दक्षिण-पूर्व                  b. 25 मी उत्‍तर-पश्‍चिम
c. 25 मी दक्षिण-पश्‍चिम           d. (√30) मी उत्‍तर-पूर्व
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

10. दी गयी जानकारी का प्रयोग करें और ज्ञात करें अभिव्‍यक्‍ति M#N$J में M के संदर्भ में J किस दिशा में है?
a. उत्‍तर          b. दक्षिण-पश्‍चिम
c. दक्षिण-पूर्व     d. उत्‍तर-पूर्व
e. उत्‍तर-पश्‍चिम

निर्देश(11-15): निम्‍नलिखित प्रश्‍नों में प्रतीको @, $, ©, % और # का प्रयोग नीचे दर्शाये गये संकेतों के साथ किया गया है।
M $ N का अर्थ M, N से न तो छोटा है न ही बराबर है।
M # N का अर्थ M, N से छोटा नहीं है।
M @ N का अर्थ M, N से बड़ा नहीं है।
M % N का अर्थ M, N से न तो छोटा है और ना ही बड़ा है।
M © N का अर्थ M, N से न तो बड़ा है और न ही बराबर है।

निम्‍नलिखित प्रत्‍येक प्रश्‍नो में सही विकल्‍प चुने।
11. कथन: S $ N, N © X, X @ R, R % F
निष्‍कर्ष:
I. S # X
II. F #X
III. N © R
IV. S © F

a. केवल I सत्‍य है।
b. केवल II और III सत्‍य है।
c. केवल I और III सत्‍य है।
d. कोई सत्‍य नहीं है।
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

12. कथन: A % I, F © I, F @ L, L © P
निष्‍कर्ष:
I. A © P
I. P $ F
III. I $ L
IV. F % A
a. केवल I सत्‍य है।
b. केवल II सत्‍य है।
c. केवल III और IV सत्‍य है।
d. सभी सत्‍य हैं।
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

13. कथन: S © T, T # L, L $ K, K % U
निष्‍कर्ष:
I. T $ U
II. L $ U
III. T # K
IV. S © U
a. केवल I और II सत्‍य है।
b. केवल III और IV सत्‍य है।
c. केवल II और III सत्‍य है।
d. केवल I सत्‍य है।
e. सभी सत्‍य हैं।

14. कथन: R © B, B # L, L @ N, N © P
निष्‍कर्ष:
I. N $ R
II. B # P
III. L © P
IV. B % N
a. केवल I सत्‍य है।
b. केवल III और IV सत्‍य हैं।
c. केवल III सत्‍य है।
d. कोई सत्‍य नहीं है।
e. सभी सत्‍य हैं।

15. कथन: X @ F, F $ M, M © C, C @ T
निष्‍कर्ष:
I. F $ C
II. T $ X
III. M © X
IV. T $ M
a. केवल I, II और III सत्‍य हैं।
b. केवल II और III सत्‍य है।
c. केवल II सत्‍य है।
d. केवल IV सत्‍य है।
e. सभी सत्‍य हैं।

16. यदि HONESTLY शब्‍द के प्रत्‍येक स्‍वर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला के अगले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये और प्रत्‍येक व्‍यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला के पिछले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये और इस प्रकार प्राप्‍त शब्‍द के अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला के अनुसार बांयें से दांयें क्रम में व्‍यवस्‍थित कर दिया जाये तो कितने अक्षरों का स्‍थान अपरिवर्तित रहेगा (पहले व्‍यवस्‍थित किये गये वर्णमाला क्रम के अनुसार)?
a. कोई नहीं                b. एक
c. दो                       d. तीन
e. तीन से अधिक

17. शब्द CREATIVE के पहले, दूसरे, चौथे, पांचवे तथा आठवें अक्षरेां का प्रयोग करके R से आरंभ होने वाला एक सार्थक शब्द बनाया गया है। तदनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा अक्षर उस शब्द का मध्य अक्षर है?
a. E             b. T
c. C             d. A

e. R


Batch for IBPS PO/Clerk & RRB NTPC 2017 Starts From 9th October 2017. For Any Query Call : 9828097824.

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