IBPS SO Exam 2017 - Day 11 (Reading Comprehension)

Dear Aspirants,

We have introduced  "the 12 days study plan to crack IBPS SO Exam 2017". This plan is specifically dedicated to Quantitative Aptitude & English Language and cover all types of questions asked in Bank SO exams. This will help you to prepare in a more efficient and systematic way. So, follow this post to keep updated with the plan.



Directions (Q. 1–10): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There has been abundant criticism following the budgetary cuts imposed on social sector programmes in this year’s budget, the most prominent being the 50 per cent drop in the Integrated Child Development (ICDS) programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, custodian of underprivileged children, and supposed guardian nutritional wellbeing. 

 Socialist evangelists have termed this as an attack on the welfare state. Understandable, because both in governmental and non-governmental circles, we continue to have a penchant for measuring commitment to ‘welfare’ through the size of budget allocations and expenditures, rather than proper utilisation of money or achieving outcomes. To what extent these budgetary cuts will be compensated by the tax devolution arithmetic of the 14th Finance Commission is not yet clear.


However, several development experts and practitioners view this new development as the beginning of a much needed transition within the ‘social sectors’ of the government. The government and the people both know that several development programmes have reached a state of diminishing or nil returns. Independent India had no option but to start as a welfare state with a planned economy, to build up its abysmal economic and human capital left behind by British rulers. 

The planned economy pursued a vigorous agriculture, industrial and social development agenda. The year 1975 was a watershed year for India’s welfare state — the year of the 5th Five Year Plan, the 20 Point Programme, the Minimum Needs Programme and the ICDS. It was also the year of the (infamous) Emergency, which required parallel populism through the platform of development. Meanwhile, democracy was maturing, welfare delivery systems were being built and peoples’ lives were improving gradually. The welfare state was becoming increasingly popular, as side by side, a rent nexus between the political class, budget handlers, and the implementing machinery had also started evolving, and leakage mechanisms were getting entrenched. Apart from the public good aspect, welfare schemes provided several other advantages: they assuaged the conscience of governments, when acting unethically, or against public or national interest; they provided employment to vast numbers of the semi-literate, low-skilled work force, especially in rural areas, in the form of cooks, helpers, guards, attendants, etc., the closest they could get to a ‘government’ job; they provided opportunity to NGOs, genuine or otherwise, to grow, which also boosted rural employment, etc. Also, higher were the welfare state’s financial allocations for development, the larger became the supervisory governmental machinery, lengthening hierarchies, advancing promotion prospects, deepening leakages, and expanding rental cronyism. Today, almost seven decades after independence, we see the full-blown rental nexus, well past the danger mark, and most welfare programmes and institutions in a state of irretrievable collapse. 

A glaring failure of the welfare state has been in improving the nutritional profile of our population, even though health indicators, particularly for women and children, have steadily improv ed during the last decade, as consistently brought out in recent surveys - Sample Registration System-2010, the National Institute of Nutrition Report 26, 2012. One of the reasons for this could be that national health programmes in India have periodically reviewed themselves, and programme gaps if not completely, have been progressively addressed. Similar periodic reviews have not happened within the ICDS or the orphan nutrition sector that still remains without a national programme to address under-nutrition.

1. According to the revivalist which of the following is an attack on the welfare state?
1) Premediated economy
2) Percentage drop in women and child development programme
3) Several development programs have reached a state of nil returns.
4) Only 2 and 3
5) Only1 and 3

2. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'Abysmal' as used in the passage.
1) Infinite 
2) Unfathomable 
3) Measurable 
4) Depthless 
5) Achievable

3. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'penchant' as used in the passage.
1) Predisposition 
2) Proclivity 
3) Proneness 
4) Antipathy 
5) Yen

4. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'Entrenched' as used in the passage.
1) Fortified 
2) Irresolute 
3) Weakened 
4) Retailed 
5) Succeed

5. According to the passage, how can a country become a welfare state?
1) With a profound economy
2) By increasing male and female life expectancy rate
3) Parallel populism through the platform of development
4) Suitable welfare delivery system
5) Other than given options

6. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'irretrievable' as used in the passage.
1) Hopeful 
2) Despairing 
3) Irremediable 
4) Desponding 
5) Downcast

7. What were the consequences of emerging inter-relations among the governing bodies ?
1) The funds were not reaching at their targets.
2) Expansion of supervisory government machinery
3) Advancing promotion prospects and lengthening hierarchies
4) Expanding patronage
5) All of the above

8. Which of the following is contrary to the health indicators of the government?
1) Improvement in nutritional profile of the population
2) No improvement in nutritional profile of the population
3) Improvement in nutritional profile of women and children only
4) Periodic review of health policies.
5) None of the above

9. What are the advantages of welfare schemes?
A) Generation of employment for the vulnerable section in rural area
B) Ameliorating the faith of rural population in the government.
C) Providing opportunity to NGOs.
1) Only A 
2) Both A and C 
3) All A, B and C 
4) Both B and C 
5) Only B

10. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'assuaged' as used in the passage.
1) Relieved 
2) Intensified 
3) Assured 
4) Devoid 
5) Provoked


Answers:

1. 2
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
5. 5
6. 1
7. 5
8. 2
9. 3

10.1

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IBPS SO Exam 2017 - Day 11 (Sentence Correction)

Dear Aspirants,

We have introduced  "the 12 days study plan to crack IBPS SO Exam 2017". This plan is specifically dedicated to Quantitative Aptitude & English Language and cover all types of questions asked in Bank SO exams. This will help you to prepare in a more efficient and systematic way. So, follow this post to keep updated with the plan.





Directions (1-15): The following sentences contain an error part. Each sentence is following by five different ways of wording the part that contains the error. Answer choice (A) always repeats the original; the other four choices are different. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the incorrect part, choose answer (A); otherwise, select the best alternative.

Q1. Many healthcare professionals now advocate race walking as a form of exercise because it burns as many calories as jogging, works muscle groups that jogging does not, and the chances of stress related injuries are reduced.
(a) and the chances of stress related injuries are reduced
(b) and reduces the chances of stress-related injury
(c) reducing the chances of stress related injury
(d) and the chances of a stress-related injury get reduced
(e) with a reduction of the chances of a stress-related injury


Q2. A baby boomer is defined to be one who is now in his or her mid-thirties, who is concerned with raising a family, and who is not upwardly mobile.
(a) to be one who is now in his or her mid-thirties, who is concerned with raising a family, and who
(b) as those who are in their mid-thirties, concerned with raising a family.
(c) to be those that are in their mid-thirties, concerned about the raising of a child, that
(d) to be one who is in his or her mid-thirties and concerned with the raising of a family and also who
(e) as a person in his or her mid-thirties, who is concerned with raising a family and who

Q3. The dropout rate in American schools is ten times that of European nations
(a) that of European nations
(b) what the rate is in Europe
(c) that of school in Europe
(d) European nations’
(e) that which they are in Europe

Q4. More and more fashion conscious women are asking themselves if it is morally right to wear clothing made from the skin of an animal.
(a) if it is
(b) about if it is
(c) whether it is
(d) as to whether or not it is
(e) about whether it is

Q5. This is the third straight Christmas season in which retail stores will experience a sharp drop in sales from the previous year
(a) in which retail stores will experience
(b) in which retail stores experience
(c) which retail stores will experience
(d) of retail stores experiencing
(e) of experiencing by retail stores of

Q6. When used together, the cosmetic claims that its products enhance the appearance of the skin by preventing blemishes of reducing signs of aging.
(a) When used together, the cosmetic company claims that its products enhance the appearance of the skin by preventing blemishes and reducing signs of aging.
(b) The cosmetic company claims that, when used together, the appearance of the skin will be enhanced by the products by their preventing blemishes and reducing signs of aging.
(c) When used together, the products will enhance the appearance of the skin, also preventing blemishes and reducing signs of aging, or so the company claims.
(d) According to the cosmetic company, when its products are used together, they will enhance the appearance of the skin, prevent blemishes, and reduce signs of aging.
(e) According to the cosmetic company, when its products are used together, the appearance of the skin will be enhanced and blemishes will be prevented reducing the signs and aging.

Q7. Elizabeth I was a student of classical languages and it has her who insisted that Greek and Latin were spoken at court.
(a) it was her who insisted that Greek and Latin were spoken at court
(b) it was she that insisted on the speaking of Greek and Latin at court
(c) it was she who insisted that Greek and Latin be spoken at court
(d) she insisted that, at court, Greek and Latin were spoken
(e) she had insisted that Greek and Latin were to be spoken at court

Q8. Although Beverly Sills never achieved superstar status in Europe or at the Metropolitan Opera, yet she was singing major roles at the City Opera during 20 years
(a) yet she was singing major roles at the City Opera during 20 years
(b) she did sing major roles at the City Opera during 20 years
(c) she sang major roles at the City Opera for 20 years
(d) yet for 20 years major roles had been sung by her at the City Opera
(e) but for 20 years major roles had been sung by her at the City Opera

Q9. Although Mary Ann is not a great scholar, neither has she published any books, she has and always will be a great teacher and well-loved by her students
(a) scholar, neither has she published any books she has and always will be
(b) scholar, nor having published any books, she has been and always will be
(c) scholar and she hasn’t published any books, she has been and always will be
(d) scholar nor published any books, still she has been and always will be
(e) scholar not has she published any books, but she has been and always will be

Q10. The great difference in interpretation between him and his immediate predecessor of the role of Anthony were the subject of last week’s column by the well-known drama critic.
(a) between him and his immediate predecessor of the role of Anthony were
(b) between him and his immediate predecessor in the role of Anthony was
(c) between he and his immediate predecessor of the role of Anthony were
(d) among him and his immediate predecessor of the role of Anthony was
(e) among him and his immediate predecessor of the role of Anthony were

Q11. The English version of Waiting for Godot, of which Beckett was the translator, was seen in a new production at Lincoln Center in 1988.
(a) of which Beckett was the translator
(b) which Beckett was the translator
(c) having been translated by Beckett
(d) that had being translated by Beckett
(e) the translator Beckett

Q12. Accusing his opponent of falsifying his military record, it was clear that the Congressional race was heating up.
(a) Accusing his opponent of falsifying his military record, it was clear that the Congressional race was heating up.
(b) Accusing the other opponent of falsifying his military record, it was clear that the Congressional race heated up.
(c) It was clear that the Congressional race was heating up when one candidate accused the other of falsifying his military record.
(d) Having accused his opponent of falsifying his military record, it was clear that the Congressional race was heating up.
(e) Once accused of falsifying his military record, it was clear that the Congressional race was heating up

Q13. Although she plays tennis as well, if not better, than her sister, her sister is the captain of the team.
(a) Although she plays tennis as well, if not better, than here sister.
(b) Although she plays tennis as well as, if not better than, her sister.
(c) Despite her playing tennis as well as, if not better than, her sister.
(d) She plays tennis as well, if not better, than her sister, but
(e) Playing tennis as well as, if not better than, her sister

Q14. A discussion on our nation’s foreign policy must begin with the fact of there being an independent Western Europe which now thinks of itself in trans-nationalist terms.
(a) A discussion of our nation’s foreign policy must begin with the fact of there being
(b) Beginning any discussion of our nation’s foreign policy must be the fact of there being
(c) Any discussion of our nation’s foreign policy must begin with the fact that there is
(d) Any discussion of our nation’s foreign policy must begin by acknowledging the existence of
(e) To begin discussing our nation’s foreign policy there must be an acknowledgment of the fact that

Q15. Interest rates on mortgages have declined steadily during the first six months of this year, but virtually remained unchanged during the next three months.
(a) have declined steadily during the first six months of this year but virtually remained unchanged
(b) declined steadily during the first six months of this year but virtually remain unchanged
(c) steadily declined during the first six months of this year but remain virtually unchanged
(d) declined steadily during the first six months of this year but have remained virtually unchanging
(e) declined steadily during the first six months of this year, but have remained virtually unchanged

ANSWERS :

S1. Ans.(b) 
Sol. and reduces the chances of stress-related injury

S2. Ans.(e) 
Sol. as a person in his or her mid-thirties, who is concerned with raising a family and who

S3. Ans.(a) 
Sol. that of European nations

S4. Ans.(c) 
Sol. whether it is

S5. Ans.(a) 
Sol. in which retail stores will experience

S6. Ans.(d) 
Sol. According to the cosmetic company, when its products are used together, they will enhance the appearance of the skin, prevent blemishes, and reduce signs of aging.

S7. Ans.(c) 
Sol. it was she who insisted that Greek and Latin be spoken at court

S8. Ans.(c) 
Sol. she sang major roles at the City Opera for 20 years

S9. Ans.(c) 
Sol. scholar and she hasn’t published any books, she has been and always will be

S10. Ans.(b) 
Sol.  between him and his immediate predecessor in the role of Anthony was

S11. Ans.(a) 
Sol.  of which Beckett was the translator

S12. Ans.(c) 
Sol.  It was clear that the Congressional race was heating up when one candidate accused the other of falsifying his military record.

S13. Ans.(b) 
Sol.  Although she plays tennis as well as, if not better than, her sister

S14. Ans.(d) 
Sol.  Any discussion of our nation’s foreign policy must begin by acknowledging the existence of

S15. Ans.(e) 

Sol.  declined steadily during the first six months of this year, but have remained virtually unchanged

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IBPS SO Exam 2017 - Day 10 (Data Interpretation)

Dear Aspirants,

We have introduced  "the 12 days study plan to crack IBPS SO Exam 2017". This plan is specifically dedicated to Quantitative Aptitude & English Language and cover all types of questions asked in Bank SO exams. This will help you to prepare in a more efficient and systematic way. So, follow this post to keep updated with the plan.



Direction : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Percentage of marks obtained by different students in different subjects :





1.What is the total marks obtained by Nisha in all the subject together ?
1) 256
2) 406
3) 356
4) 425
5) None of these

2.What is the approximate average marks obtained by all the students together in Geography ?
1) 48
2) 38
3) 54
4) 28
5) None of these

3. The number of students who got 70 % marks or above in all the subjects are –
1) 4
2) 3
3) None
4) 6
5) None of these

4. How many students have scored more than 120 marks in Maths ?
1) 3
2) 2
3) 1
4) 4
5) None of these

5. If 120 marks are required to pass in Maths, How many students pass in the Maths exams –
1) 4
2) 5
3) 4
4) 3
5) None of these

6. In which subject the overall percentage is the highest –
1) Maths
2) Physics
3) Hindi
4) History
5) None of these

7.What is the ratio of total number of marks obtained by Rakesh in Physics and Chemistry together to Chinu in the same subjects?
1) 17 : 23
2) 23 : 17
3) 23 : 18
4) 23 : 27
5) None of these

Direction : Study the following information to answer the given questions :

Percentage of students in various courses of Engineering like Electronics, IT, CSE, Mechanical, Mining and Civil Engineering.




8. How many girls are there in course Mechanical Engineering and Computer Science Engineering together ?
1) 440
2) 640
3) 540
4) 240
5) None of these

9. For which pair of courses is the number of boys same ?
1) IT and Electronics
2) Civil and Mechanical
3) IT and Civil
4) CSE and IT
5) None of these

10. For which courses the number of boys are the minimum ?
1) Civil Engineering
2) Electronics Engineering
3) Mining Engineering
4) Computer Science Engineering
5) None of these

11. For course I.T. What is the ratio of the boys to girl ?
1) 122 : 102
2) 102 : 122
3) 32 : 42
4) 20 : 25
5) None of these

12.What is the total number of student in mining and Computer Science Engineering together ?
1) 760
2) 690
3) 640
4) 670
5) None of these

13.What is the ratio between boys in Mechanical and Civil Engineering together to girls in the same subject ?
1) 134 : 45
2) 136 : 45
3) 45 : 136
4) 38 : 136
5) None of these

14.What is the average number of girls in course I.T Mechanical and Civil Engineering together ?
1) 98
2) 108
3) 105
4) 118
5) None of these



Answers:

1. 2
150 + 75 + 50 + 48 + 48 + 35 = 406

2. 3
(60 + 92 + 76 + 72 + 64 + 60 + 80)/7 * 75/100 = 54

3. 3

4. 2
120 marks out of 150 marks = 120/150 * 100 = 80%
Auhutosh and Nisha

5. 4
120 marks out of 150 marks = 120/150 * 100 = 80%
Ashutosh, Rakesh and Nisha

6. 1

7. 2



8. 3
C = 1200 * (35% + 10%) = 1200 * 45% = 540

9. 3

10. 2

11. 2

12. 3

13. 1

14. 2

(144 + 120 + 60)/3 = 324/3 = 108

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IBPS SO Exam 2017 - Day 10 (Data Interpretation)

Dear Aspirants,

We have introduced  "the 12 days study plan to crack IBPS SO Exam 2017". This plan is specifically dedicated to Quantitative Aptitude & English Language and cover all types of questions asked in Bank SO exams. This will help you to prepare in a more efficient and systematic way. So, follow this post to keep updated with the plan.


Directions (Q. Now. 1-5): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow. 
Per cent rise in profit of two companies A and B from the year 1994 to 1999 



1. If the profit earned by company A in the year 1995 was Rs. 1.96 lakh, what was the profit earned by the company in the years 1996? 
(a) Rs. 2.12 lakh  
(b) Rs. 2.45 lakh
(c) Rs. 2.04 lakh  
(d) Cannot be determined 
(e) None of the above

2. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the above graph?
(a) Company B made the highest profit in the year 1999   
(b) Company A made the least profit in the year 1995 
(c) The ratio of the profits earned by company A and company B in the year 1996 was 6 : 5
(d) Company A made the highest profit in the year 1998 
(e) All of the above 

3. What was the percentage increase in per cent rise in profit of company B in the year 1999 from the previous year?
(a) 25   
(b) 15
(c) 50    
(d) 75
(e) None of the above 

4. If the profit earned by company B in the year 1998 was Rs. 4.56 lakh, what was the amount of profit earned by it in the year 1996?
(a) Rs. 2.16 lakh  
(b) Rs. 3.04 lakh
(c)Rs. 2.42 lakh  
(d) Cannot be determined 
(e) None of the above 

5. What was the average per cent rise in profit of company A over all the years together? 


Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow. 

   Runs scored by three different teams in five different cricket matches 




6. Total runs scored by India and South Africa in Match 4 together is approximately, what percentage of the total runs scored by Sri Lanka in all the five matches together? 
(a) 42    
(b) 18
(c) 36   
(d) 24
(e) 28

7. In which match, is the difference between the runs scored by South Africa and Sri Lanka second lowest? 
(a) 1   
(b) 2
(c) 3   
(d) 4
(e) 5

8. In which match the total runs scored by India and Sri Lanka together is the third highest/lowest? 
(a) 1   
(b) 2
(c) 3   
(d) 4
(e) 5 

9. What is the respective ratio between the runs scored by India in Match, 5 South Africa in Match 1 and Sri Lanka in Match 2?
(a) 11 : 13 : 7   
(b) 11 : 7 : 13 
(c) 11 : 3 : 9   
(d) 11 : 13 : 9 
(e) None of the above 

10. What are the average runs scored by all the three teams in Match 3 together? 
(a) 280   
(b) 270
(c) 275   
(d) 285

(e) None of the above 


ANSWERS :

Sol. (a);

According to the graph, it is clear that the profit of companies A and B increased every year. Minimum profit in the year 1994 and maximum profit in the year 1999 by both companies.Ratio cannot be determined because numerical values are not given. 

So, only Statement A is true.

 

Sol. (c);

Difference between the runs scored by 

South Africa and Sri Lanka in 

Match 1 = 260 – 160 = 100

Match 2 = 330 – 180 = 150 

Match 3 = 310 – 230 = 80 

Match 4 = 270 – 220 = 50 

Match 5 = 300 – 150 = 150 

∴Second lowest difference in Match 3.

Sol. (a);

Total runs scored by India and Sri Lanka in 

Match 1 = 320 + 160 = 480

Match 2 = 240 + 180 = 420 

Match 3 = 270 + 230 = 500

Match 4 = 190 + 270 = 460 

Match 5 = 220 + 300 = 520 

∴Third highest/lowest score in Match 1.

Sol. (d);

Required ratio 

= 220 : 260 : 180 = 11 : 13 : 9 

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