Showing posts with label IBPS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IBPS. Show all posts

Saturday, 9 December 2017


IBPS Clerk Prelims Analysis: Overall  


The preliminary exam for IBPS Clerk was conducted online and had 100 questions for 60 minutes. Candidates have to manage those 60 minutes themselves while dealing with three sections- Reasoning Ability (35 Ques), Numerical Ability (35 Ques), and English Language (30 Ques). 

SubjectGood AttemptTime (in min.)
English Language15-1815
Reasoning Ability29-3220
Numerical Ability24-2725
Total78-8260


English Language (Moderate-Difficult)

The level of English Language was Moderate-Difficult. There were new pattern questions on idiom and phrases where one had to choose an idiom/phrase the was similar to the word given in bold. There were questions of double fillers. In sentence rearrangement, parts of a sentence were to be rearranged to make a meaningful sentence.
TopicNo. of QuestionLevel
Reading Comprehension5Moderate
Double Fillers7Moderate
Idioms/ Phrases10Moderate-Difficult
Sentence Rearrangement (New Pattern)8Moderate-Difficult
Total30Moderate-Difficult


Numerical Ability (Easy-Moderate)

The level of Numerical Ability section was Easy-Moderate. The number of questions from arithmetic (word problems) was significantly high as 10 out of 35 questions were from the arithmetic portion There was only 1 set of DI:
  • Tabular (Different shopkeer selling mobiles on different days)

TopicsNo. of QuestionLevel
Tabular DI5Moderate
Simplification/Approximation15Easy-Moderate
Number Series (Missing)5Easy-Moderate
Partnership2Easy
Mensuration1Easy
Simple Interest1Easy
Time, Speed and Distance1Easy
Problem on Ages2Easy
Time and Work1Easy
Miscellaneous 2Easy
Total35Easy-Moderate


    Reasoning Ability (Easy)

    There were 3 sets of puzzles and Seating Arrangement which are given below:-
    • Linear (Double line, Both North) 1 Variable
    • Square(8 person sitting, Four at cornor and four at middle of the side)
    • Months based Puzzle(2 Variable)
        TopicsNo. of QuestionsLevel
        Coding Decoding 4Easy
        Puzzles and Seating Arrangement15Moderate
        Alphabet Series5Easy
        Blood Relation3Easy
        Inequality4Easy
        Syllogism 4Easy
        Total35 Easy

        Thursday, 7 December 2017


        1.Ramnik walked 55 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 45 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 40 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 45 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
        (a) 95 metre 
        (b) 15 metre 
        (c) 185 metre
        (d)Can’t say 
        (e)None of these

        S1. Ans.(a)
        Sol. 95 meter

        2.In a certain code language, ‘will you leave now’ is written as ‘jim dim kim pim’; ‘now you stay here’ is written as ‘nim kim sim jim’ and ‘stay or leave’ is written as ‘rim pim sim’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language?
        (a) jim 
        (b) nim 
        (c) pim 
        (d) Data inadequate 
        (e) None of these

        S2.Ans. (b)
        Sol.‘here’ is coded as ‘nim’. 

        3.What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
        DFB, JLH, PRN, ?
        (a)TUX 
        (b)XVT 
        (c) TXV 
        (d) VXT 
        (e) None of these

        S3. Ans.(d)
        Sol.

        4.In a certain code COLD is written as ‘2 @ 4 #’ and DARK is written as ‘# 6 % 8’. How is ROCK written in that code?
        (a) %628 
        (b) %@68 
        (c) %2@8 
        (d) %@28 
        (e) None of these

        S4.Ans. (d) 
        Sol.‘R’ is coded as ‘%’, ‘O’ is coded as ‘@’, ‘C’ is coded as ‘2’ and ‘K’ is coded as ‘8’.

        5.If ‘T’ denotes ‘–’, ‘S’ denotes ‘×’, ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, then—
        35 M 5 T 4 A 7 S 3 = ?
        (a) 58 
        (b) 30 
        (c) 16 
        (d) 28 
        (e)None of these

        S5. Ans.(e) 
        Sol. 35 M 5 T 4 A 7 S 3 = 24

        Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
        a) if only conclusion I is true.
        b) if only conclusion II is true.
        c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
        d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
        e) if both conclusions I and II are true.

        6.Statements: All red are blue. Some blue are yellow.
        Conclusions: 
        I. Some yellow are red.
        II. All red are yellow.

        7.Statements: Some doors are tables. No table is chair.
        Conclusions
        I. Some doors are chairs.
        II. No door is chair.

        8.Statements: Some iron are zinc.Some copper are iron.
        Conclusions:
         I. Some iron are copper.
        II. Some copper are zinc.

        9.Statements: All the fans are tubes. Some bulbs are tubes.
        Conclusions:
         I. Some tubes are fans.
        II. No fan is a bulb.

        10.Statements: Some rooms are halls. Some halls are kitchens.
        Conclusions:
         I. All rooms are kitchens.
        II. Some kitchens are rooms

        Solutions (6-10):

        S6.Ans. (d) 
        Sol.

        S7.Ans. (c) 
        Sol.


        S8. Ans. (a) 
        Sol.


        S9.Ans. (a)
        Sol.


        S10. Ans.(d)
        Sol.


        Directions(11–15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
        In a group, 5 friends Amit, Akash, Ashu, Avdesh and Veenit have an exclusive and different preference for a colour, a bike, and a Watch. Colour preferences are Red, Pink, Green, Grey and Blue. Bikes preferences are Karizma, Pulsar, Passion, Discover and Splendor. Watch preferences are Timex, Titan, Fastrack, Citizen and Samay 
        Amit like Discover and Red colour but does not prefer Titan or Fastrack. The one who has Pulsar prefer Fastrack. Ashu has preference for splendor, Blue colour and Samay. Avdesh has preference for Pink colour and Timex. Veenit prefers Karizma and Grey. 

        11.Which watch is Amit‘s preference?
        (a) Titan 
        (b) Fastrack 
        (c) Samay
        (d) Cannot be determined 
        (e) None of these

        12.Which colour does Ashu like?
        (a) Pink 
        (b) Blue 
        (c) Grey
        (d) Cannot be determined 
        (e) None of These

        13.Whose preference is Pulsar?
        (a) Akash 
        (b) Avdesh 
        (c) Veenit
        (d) Cannot be determined 
        (e) None of these

        14.Which watch is Veenit’s preference?
        (a) Samay 
        (b) Fastrack 
        (c) Titan
        (d) Cannot be determined 
        (e) None of These

        15.Who like Grey Colour?
        (a) Amit 
        (b) Akash 
        (c) Veenit
        (d) Avdesh 
        (e) Can’t Say

        Solutions (11-15):

        S11.Ans.(e)
        Sol.
        S12.Ans. (b)
        Sol.
        S13.Ans.(a)
        Sol.
        S14.Ans. (c)
        Sol.
        S15.Ans.(c)
        Sol.

        Wednesday, 6 December 2017


        Directions: (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
        Eleven students A,B,C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in a row of the class facing towards the north direction.
        D sits immediate left of F and second to the right of C. A sits second to the right of E, who is at one of the ends.J is the immediate neighbor of A and B . J sits third to the left of G. H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I. 

        1.Who is sitting in the middle of the row?
        (a) C 
        (b) I
        (c) B 
        (d) G
        (e) None of these

        2.Which of the following group of friends is sitting to the right of G?
        (a) IBJA 
        (b) ICHDF
        (c) CHDF 
        (d) CHDE
        (e) None of these

        3.Which of the following sits to the immediate left of A?
        (a) K 
        (b) J
        (c) B 
        (d) I
        (e) None 

        4.Which of the following statements is true in the above sitting arrangement?
        (a) There are three students between D and G
        (b) G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H
        (c) B is sitting b/w J and I
        (d) K is sitting b/w A and J
        (e) None of these

        5.If E and D, C and B, A and H and K and F interchange their positions, which of the following pair of students is sitting at the end?
        (a) D and E 
        (b) E and F
        (c) D and K 
        (d) K and F
        (e) None of these

        Solutions (1-5):

        Ans.1.(b)
        Sol.I is sitting in the middle of the row.

        Ans.2.(c)
        Sol.CHDF are sitting right of G

        Ans.3.(a)
        Sol.

        Ans.4.(c)
        Sol. B is sitting b/w J and I

        Ans.5.(c)
        Sol. D and K will be sitting at the two ends if the positions as given in the question are interchanged. 

        Directions (Q.6-10): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

        A $ 1 P S # * 2 Q B 4 ! & 6 Z Y @ % 7 X

        6.Which of the following should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?
        1$P *#2 4B! ?6Y 7%X
        (a)@ 
        (b) Z 
        (c)& 
        (d) % 
        (e)none of these

        7.How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number? 
        (a) None 
        (b) One 
        (c) Two 
        (d) Three 
        (e) Four 

        8.How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a letter? 
        (a)None 
        (b) One 
        (c) Two 
        (d) Three 
        (e) More than three 

        9.If the positions of ten elements from the right end are reversed, which of the following will be the sixth element from the right end? 
        (a) Z 
        (b) Y 
        (c) @ 
        (d) % 
        ( e) None of these 

        10.Which of the following is 3rd to the left of the 8th element from the left end of the above arrangement? 
        (a) B 
        ( b) ! 
        (c) 4 
        (d) & 
        (e) None of these

        Solutions (6-10):

        Ans.6.(b)
        Sol. Z

        Ans.7.(b)
        Sol. One A$1

        Ans.8.(a)
        Sol.None 

        Ans.9.(b)
        Sol. Y

        Ans.10.(e)
        Sol. answer is 8 – 3 = 5th element from left is S

        Directions (11 – 15): In each questions below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take two/ three given statements to be true if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
        Give answer 
        (a) If only Conclusions I follows
        (b) If only Conclusions II follows
        (c) If either Conclusions I or conclusion II follow
        (d) If neither Conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
        (e) If both Conclusion I and conclusion II follows

        11.Statements: All lines are circles. Some circles are squares.
        Conclusions: 
        I. No square is a line.
        II. Some squares are definitely not circles.

        12.Statements: All kites are birds. No kite is a glider.
        Conclusions: 
        I. Some gliders are definitely not birds.
        II. Atleast some birds are kites.

        13.Statements: No fern is a plant. All roots are ferns.
        Conclusions
        I. No plant is a root.
        II. All ferns are roots.

        14.Statements: Some planets are stars. Some orbits are stars.
        Conclusions
        I. No orbit is a planet.
        II. Atleast some stars are planets.

        15.Statements: All solids are liquids. All liquids are gases. No gas is plasma.
        Conclusions: 
        I. All solids are gases.
        II. No liquid is plasma.

        Solutions (11-15):

        Ans.11.(d) 
        Sol.


        Ans.12.(b) 
        Sol.


        Ans.13.(a) 
        Sol.


        Ans.14.(b)
        Sol.


        Ans.15.(e)
        Sol.

        Monday, 4 December 2017



        Directions (1-5): The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the sum of six different banks with which an Indian businessman, Vijay Malya, fled away from India. Study the chart carefully to answer the following questions. 

        Note: In pie-chart, some data are missing. If required, then first and then proceed.





        (a) 1968.45 crores
        (b) 1945.68 crores
        (c) 1519.68 crores
        (d) 1845.84 crores
        (e) None of these

         Q2. If the average sum from ICICI, SBI and Axis banks together with which Malya fled away from India, was Rs. 1,474 crores, then find the sum from ICICI bank that Malya took away from the country? 
        (a) 1084.26 crores
        (b) 1343.16 crores
        (c) 1238.16 crores
        (d) 1440.24 crores
        (e) None of these


        Q3. What was the total sum from HDFC, PNB and UBI together with which Malya fled away from country (for ICICI bank use the value obtained in Q2.)? 
        (a) 3,944 crores
        (b) 4,544 crores
        (c) 3,842 crores
        (d) 4,422 crores
        (e) None of these



        Q4. Find the ratio of money from SBI and UBI together to the money from PNB and ICICI banks together if percentage value of PNB is 6% more than that of UBI.
        (a) 4 : 9
        (b) 9 : 11
        (c) 11 : 9
        (d) 9 : 4
        (e) None of these


        Q5. If the percentage distribution of money of SBI and PNB was interchanged, then find the average sum from PNB, UBI and ICICI together with which Malya fled away from India. 
        (a) 1810.84 crores
        (b) 1709.84 crores
        (c) 1725 crores
        (d) 1764.64 crores
        (e) None of these


        Directions(6-10): Find the wrong term in the following number series.

        Q6. 5,     15,     30,     135,     405,     1215,     3645
        (a) 5
        (b) 30
        (c) 405
        (d) 3645
        (e) 1215


        Q7. 2,     9,     28,     65,     126,     216,     344
        (a) 9
        (b) 28
        (c) 216
        (d) 65
        (e) 344


        Q8. 1,     2,     6,     21,     86,     445,     2676
        (a) 86
        (b) 6
        (c) 21
        (d) 445
        (e) 2676



        Q9. 3,     5,     12,     38,     154,     914,     4634
        (a) 5
        (b) 12
        (c) 154
        (d) 914
        (e) 4634


        Q10. 696,     340,     168,     80,     36,     14,     3
        (a) 14
        (b) 168
        (c) 340
        (d) 80
        (e) 3


        Q11. A certain product C is made of two ingredients A and B in the proportion of 2: 5. The price of A is three times that of B. The overall cost of C is Rs. 5.20 per kg including labour charges of 80 paisa per kg. Find the cost of B per kg? 
        (a) Rs. 8.40
        (b) Rs. 4.20
        (c) Rs. 4.80
        (d) Rs. 2.80
        (e) None of these


        Q12. A bath can be filled with the cold water pipe in 10 minutes and by hot water pipe in 15 minutes (independently each). A person leaves the bathroom after turning on both pipes simultaneously and returns at the moment when the bath should be full. Finding, however, that the waste pipe has been opened he now closes it. In 4 minutes more, the bath is full. In what time would be the waste pipe empty it? 
        (a) 6 minutes
        (b) 9 minutes
        (c) 3 minutes
        (d) 15 minutes
        (e) None of these


        Q13. Two trains, 100 km apart, travel towards each other on the same track. One train travels at 40 km/hr; the other travels at 60 km/hr. A bird starts flying at a speed of 90 km/hr, at the same location of the faster train. When it reaches the slower train, it turns around and flies in the opposite direction at the same speed. When it reaches the faster train, again it turns around and so on. When the two trains collide, how far has the bird flown? 
        (a) 90 km
        (b) 45 km
        (c) 180 km
        (d) 135 km
        (e) None of these

        S13. Ans.(a)
        Sol.
        Since the trains are 100 km apart, and the trains are travelling towards each other at 40 and 60 km/hr, the trains will collide in one hour. The bird must be flying at 90 k/hr during this time, so the bird travels 90 km.

        Q14. Parameshwaran invested an amount of Rs 12000 at the simple interest rate of 10 percent annum and another amount at the simple interest rate of 20 percent per annum. The total interest earned at the end of one year on the total amount invested became 14 percent per annum. Find the total amount invested.
        (a) Rs 22000 
        (b) Rs 25000
        (c) Rs 20000 
        (d) Rs 24000
        (e) None of these


        Q15. A man bought a scooter and a car. He sold all of them at 30% profit. Scooter is sold at 10% profit. Cost price of scooter is 1/10 of the cost of car. Marked price of a car is Rs. 4,50,000. If he bought scooter at a discount of 20% on marked price and car at a discount of 10% on marked price then, what will be the ratio of marked price of scooter to the selling price of the car. 
        (a) 25/264
        (b) 25/268
        (c) 35/260
        (d) 34/260
        (e) None of these


        Sunday, 26 November 2017



        IBPS PO Mains 2017 Recruitment Exam is over, Now it's time for the much awaited IBPS  PO  Mains Exam Analysis & Review (26th Nov 2017). Many students have appeared for this exam today and this brings them to a step closer in their journey of getting a Job in govt. sectorWithout wasting any moment, let's get straight to the analysis for which you are all waiting for. Overall the exam was of a Difficult Level level. No questions were asked from computer aptitude. There were many new types of questions introduced in the reasoning and English section. Students found reasoning section to be exceptionally difficult and in such a scenario accuracy is the key to crack the exam.

        IBPS PO Mains 2017 exam had 4 sections in the objective test of 200 marks - Reasoning and Computer Aptitude, English Language, Data Analysis and Interpretation, and General Economy and Banking Awareness. Each section had its particular time limit and overall the IBPS PO Mains Paper was fr 3 hours. This time there was also a test of Descriptive Writing after the objective paper.

        IBPS PO Mains 2017-18 Exam ANALYSIS (OVER-ALL):


        SECTIONSGOOD ATTEMPTS (Marks)
        Reasoning and Computer Aptitude16-19
        English Language12-14
        Data Analysis and Interpretation19-21
        General Economy and Banking Awareness24-28
        TOTAL74-78


        Data Analysis and Interpretation Moderate-Difficult )

        This section had 35 questions for 60 marks with a time limit of 45 minutes.  The inequality questions were based on "Quantity 1 and Quantity 2 Pattern and among the set of 5 questions of inequality 2 questions were based on diagrams. There were 3 sets of DI with 4 questions in each of the set. Following were the types of DI:
        • Tabular (Missing) +Bar
        • Tabular
        • Caselet
        The questions were:

        TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
        Data Interpretation15 Difficult
        Data Sufficiency5 Difficult
        Wrong Number Series5Moderate-Difficult
        Inequality (Q1, Q2 Type)5Moderate-Difficult
        Miscellaneous5Moderate-Difficult
        Total35Moderate-Difficult

        English Language (Difficult)

        This section had 35 questions for 40 marks with a time limit of 40 minutes. There were many new introductions in new pattern questions in English Section of this exam. The cloze test questions asked were of a totally new pattern, where there were two possible answers against a blank.There were new types of connector questions asked in this exam, where 2 words were given and five sentences and students had to identify the combination of sentences that can be connected using the given two connecting words. Error Detection questions also came with a twist, as in a sentence there was a part marked in bold which was grammatically correct and the student had to identify the erroneous part in the rest of the sentence.

        With such a difficulty level it is best to stay calm and first invest time in reading the directions properly. There were 2 reading comprehensions with 5 questions in each set.

        Topic
        No. of Questions
        Level
        Reading Comprehension 10Difficult
        Cloze Test5Moderate
        Error Detection5Moderate-Difficult
        Rephrasing Sentence to correct grammatical form4Difficult
        Connector Usage5Moderate-Difficult
        Double Filler
        2Moderate
        Para Jumble (New Pattern)4Difficult
        Total
        35
        Difficult

        Reasoning and Computer Aptitude  (Difficult)

        The level of reasoning was very Difficult.  There were NO Questions asked from Computer Aptitude. This year in IBPS PO Mains Exam there were around 10 questions of logical reasoning which includes course of action, cause and effect, conclusion and inference. 1-2 small para puzzles were also there, however, these had less matter to read and deduct from they were really tricky when compared to a lengthy one. Following were the types of puzzles asked:
        • Linear (North-South) 2 Variable
        • Small-Para Puzzles
        • Circular (with uncertain information as the number of people in the seating arrangement was not given e.g. more than 10 people are sitting on a circular table)
        • Figure Based Puzzle

        The questions were:

        Topic
        No. of Questions
        Level
        Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles 
        15
        Difficult
        Logical Reasoning
        10
        Difficult
        Coded Blood Relation
        4
        Difficult
        Coded Direction Sense
        5
        Difficult
        Input-Output
        5
        Difficult
        Data Sufficiency
        2
        Difficult
        Micellaneous
        4
        Difficult
        Total
        45
        Difficult


        General Economy and Banking Awareness (Moderate)
        The level of this question was Moderate when compared to the rest of the exam. There were around 3 questions from Budget and 3-4 questions from static awareness. Rest was Current Affairs and Banking Awareness where number of questions from Banking awareness was more than current affairs.

        Descriptive Writing Test
        English Language (Letter & Essay Writing) for 25 marks, time limit 30 minutes. There were 3 Essays and 3 Letter Writing Topics from which a candidate has to choose:

        Essay topic
        1. Which reform in Indian education can be compared with International level
        2. Advantages and Disadvantages of Cashless economy
        3. Effects of gadets on intellectual capabilities of humans

        Letter Writing
        1. Write a Letter to you friend encouraging and advising him to plan his own start-up
        2. Letter to your office colleague
        3. Write a letter to the branch manager requesting him to block your credit card as you've lost it and ask him to issue you a new card.


        Monday, 16 October 2017


        Directions (1-3): नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों में पांच कथन दिए गए हैं जिनके नीचे पांच निष्कर्ष दिए गए हैं. आपको दिए गए कथनों को सत्य मानना है भले ही वे सर्वज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों. नीचे दिए गए सभी निष्कर्षों को ध्यान पूर्वक पढ़िए और निर्धारित कीजिये की कौन सा निष्कर्ष दिए गए कथनों का अनुसरण करता है.

        Q1. कथन: कुछ आम सेब हैं. कोई सेब मिठाई नहीं हैं. कुछ मिठाइयां पपीते हैं. सभी पपीते केले हैं. कोई केले अंगूर नहीं हैं.
        निष्कर्ष: 
        (a) कुछ आम मिठाई नहीं हैं.
        (b) कुछ मिठाई केले हैं.
        (c) कुछ मिठाइयां सेब नहीं हैं .
        (d) कोई पपीता अंगूर नहीं है.
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        S1. Ans.(e)
        Sol.


        Q2. कथन: कुछ शर्ट पैट हैं. सभी पैंट जीन्स हैं. कोई जीन्स कपडा नहीं है. कुछ कपड़े ड्रेस हैं. सभी ड्रेस जैकेट हैं.
        निष्कर्ष: 
        (a) कुछ शर्ट जीन्स हैं.
        (b) कुछ शर्ट कपड़े नहीं हैं.
        (c) कोई पैंट कपडा नहीं है.
        (d) कुछ जैकेट कपड़े हैं.
        (e) कुछ शर्ट जैकेट हैं.

        S2. Ans.(e)
        Sol.


        Q3. कथन: सभी बैट बॉल हैं. कुछ बैट फूटबॉल हैं. सभी फूटबाल हॉकी हैं. कोई हॉकी बैडमिंटन नहीं है. सभी सपोर्ट बैडमिंटन हैं.
        निष्कर्ष: 
        (a) कुछ बॉल फुटबॉल हैं.
        (b) कुछ हॉकी बैट हैं.
        (c) कोई फुटबॉल बैडमिंटन.
        (d) सभी फुटबॉल बॉल हैं.
        (e) कोई खेल हॉकी नहीं है.

        S3. Ans.(d)
        Sol.


        Directions (4-5): नीचे दिए गए प्रत्येक प्रश्न में चार कथन दिए गए हैं जिनके नीचे तीन निष्कर्ष I, II और III दिए गए हैं. आपको दिए गए कथनों सत्य मानना है भले ही वे सर्वज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों. दिए गए सभी निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और निर्धारित कीजिये की दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन सा दिए गए कथनों का अनुसरण करता है.

        Q4. कथन: 
        कुछ पेन किताबे हैं.
        कोई किताब पेड़ नहीं है.
        सभी पेड़ हरे हैं.
        कोई हरा सूर्य नहीं है.

        निष्कर्ष:
        I. कुछ पेन हरे हैं.
        II. कुछ किताबें सूर्य हैं.
        III. कुछ किताबें हरी हैं.
        IV. कुछ पेन पेड़ नहीं हैं.
        (a) कोई अनुसरण नहीं करता
        (b) केवल II अनुसरण करता है
        (c) केवल IV अनुसरण करता है
        (d) III और IV अनुसरण करते हैं
        (e) केवल III अनुसरण करता है

        S4. Ans.(c)
        Sol.


        Q5. कथन: 
        कुछ हवा हरी हैं.
        सभी हरे पेड़ हैं.
        कोई पेड़ पानी नहीं है.
        सभी कार्बन पानी हैं.
        निष्कर्ष:
        I. कुछ हवा पेड़ हैं.
        II. कुछ हेवा पानी नहीं हैं.
        III. कोई हर पानी नहीं हैं.
        IV. कोई कार्बन पेड़ नहीं है.
        (a) कोई अनुसरण नहीं करता
        (b) केवल I अनुसरण करता है
        (c) केवल II अनुसरण करता है
        (d) केवल III अनुसरण करता है
        (e) सभी अनुसरण करते हैं

        S5. Ans.(e)
        Sol.


        Directions (6-10): नीचे दी गई जानकारी को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये:
        A, B, C, D, E, F, G और H आठ मित्र हैं, जो की एक 8 मंजिला इमारत में रहते हैं. भूतल को पहली संख्या दी गई है और सबसे ऊपर वाली मंज़िल को आठवीं संख्या दी गई है. उनमें से प्रत्येक अलग-अलग राष्ट्रीयकृत बैंक में काम कर रहे हैं, जैसे बी.ओ.आई, बी.ओ.बी, देना, यू.बी.आई, सी.बी.आई, आई.ओ.बी, पी.एन.बी और ओ.बी.सी, लेकिन आवश्यक नहीं की इसी क्रम में हों. A और ओ.बी.सी में कार्य करने वाले व्यक्ति के मध्य केवल एक मंज़िल है. वह व्यक्ति जो ओ.बी.सी में कार्य करता है और वे पहले तल पर नहीं रहता है. D, B के ठीक नीचे रहता है. वह व्यक्ति जो बी.ओ.आई में कार्य करता है वह एक सम संख्या वाली मंज़िल पर रहता है और सी.बी.आई में कार्य करने वाले व्यक्ति के ठीक ऊपर रहता है. वह व्यक्ति जो आई.ओ.बी में कार्य करता है वह एक सम संख्या वाली मंजिल पर रहता है लेकिन 8वीं मंजिल पर नहीं. न तो D ना ही H पहले तल पर रहता है. पी.एन.बी में काम करने वाले व्यक्ति और D के मध्य केवल एक व्यक्ति रहता है. A एक विषम संख्या वाले तल पर रहता है और E, A के ठीक ऊपर रहता है. B चौथे तल पर रहता है. आई.ओ.बी में कार्य करने वाले व्यक्ति और A के मध्य केवल दो मित्र रहते हैं. F, सी.बी.आई में कार्य करने वाले व्यक्ति के ठीक नीचे रहता है. D न तो सी.बी.आई न ही ओ.बी.सी. में कार्य करता है. वह व्यक्ति जो देना बैंक में कार्य करता है वह विषम संख्या वाले तल पर नहीं रहता है. G, बी.ओ.बी में कार्य नहीं करता है. जिन मंजिलों पर H और E रहते है उनके मध्य दो मंजिल हैं. यू.बी.आई में कार्य करने वाले व्यक्ति और देना बैंक में कार्य करने वाले व्यक्ति के मध्य केवल दो व्यक्ति हैं.

        Q6. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा बी.ओ.बी में कार्य करता है?
        (a) D
        (b) C
        (c) F
        (d) E
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Q7. E और B के मध्य कितने व्यक्ति हैं?
        (a) एक
        (b) दो
        (c) तीन
        (d) चार
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Q8. निमनलिखित मे से कौन सबसे उपर वाले तल पर रहता है?
        (a) बी.ओ.आई मे कार्य करने वाला व्यक्ति
        (b) आई.ओ.बी में कार्य करने वाला व्यक्ति
        (c) देना बैंक में कार्य करने वाला व्यक्ति
        (d) बी.ओ.बी में कार्य करने वाला व्यक्ति
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Q9. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा मेल सही है?
        (a) तल संख्या 2 – D – यू.बी.आई
        (b) तल संख्या 5 – F – ओ.बी.सी
        (c) तल संख्या 1 – C – बी.ओ.बी
        (d) तल संख्या 8 – E – बी.ओ.आई
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Q10. A निम्नलिखित में से किस बैंक में कार्य करता है ?
        (a) बी.ओ.आई
        (b) ओ.बी.सी
        (c) आई.ओ.बी
        (d) सी.बी.आई
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Solution(6-10): 


        S6. Ans.(b)
        Sol.

        S7. Ans.(c)
        Sol.

        S8. Ans.(a)
        Sol.

        S9. Ans.(d)
        Sol.

        S10. Ans.(d)
        Sol.

        Directions (11-12): नीचे दी गई जानकारी को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये:
        P + Q का अर्थ P, Q की बहन है
        P # Q का अर्थ P, Q का पति है
        P $ Q का अर्थ P, Q की पुत्री है
        P % Q का अर्थ P, Q की माँ है
        P @ Q का अर्थ P, Q का भाई है

        Q11. B, K का पुत्र है, यह संबंध स्थापित करने के लिए प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आना चाहिए?
        T % K # F % L + N ? B
        (a) केवल %
        (b) या तो + या @
        (c) केवल #
        (d) या तो @ या %
        (e) केवल +

        Q12. नीचे दिए गए समीकरणों में से कौन सा यह दर्शता है कि J, F की पत्नी है?
        (a) P $ J % R + K % F
        (b) F @ R + K + P % J
        (c) J % P + K @ R $ F
        (d) J % P # K + R + F
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Solution(11-12):

        S11. Ans.(b)
        Sol. Either + or @

        S12. Ans.(c)
        Sol.

        Directions (13-15): नीचे दी गई जानकारी को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये.
        P, Q, R, S, T और U प्रत्येक छ: मित्रों में से प्रत्येक का भार अलग है. R, T से भारी है लेकिन U से हल्का है. Q केवल P से हल्का है. T सबसे हल्का है. U का भार 50 कि.ग्रा है. P का भार 60 कि.ग्रा है.

        Q13. निम्नलिखत में से किसका भार संभवत: 40 कि.ग्रा हो सकता है?
        (a) इनमें से कोई नहीं
        (b) Q
        (c) P
        (d) R
        (e) U

        Q14. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा भार Q के सही भार को दर्शता है?
        (a) 65 कि.ग्रा
        (b) 48 कि.ग्रा
        (c) 55 कि.ग्रा
        (d) 61 कि.ग्रा
        (e) 63 कि.ग्रा

        Q15.यदि संख्या 756432 में प्रत्येक विषम संख्या से 2 घटाया जाए और प्रत्येक सम संख्या में 2 जोड़ा जाए तो प्राप्त संख्या में निम्नलिखित में से कौन से अंक की पुनरावर्ती होगी?
        (a) 9
        (b) 6
        (c) 5
        (d) 5
        (e) इनमें से कोई नहीं

        Solution (13-14):
        P(60) > Q > U (50)> R > T > S

        S13. Ans. (d)
        Sol.

        S14. Ans.(c)
        Sol.

        S15. Ans. (e)
        Sol. None of these.

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