Showing posts with label ibps po 2017. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ibps po 2017. Show all posts

Sunday, 26 November 2017



Q1. Sivalingam Sathish Kumar related to which sports- Weightlifting
Q2. Paolo Gentiloni is Prime Minister of - Italy
Q3. Which country will hold the G7 presidency summit 2018- Canada
Q4. What is the meaning of "S" in SWIFT- (Society) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
Q5. RV Rahul related to which sports- Weightlifting
Q6. Bandhan Bank Ltd. is an Indian banking and financial services company headquartered in Kolkata Bandhan, which started as a- Micro-Finance
Q7. SEAC stands for- State Expert Appraisal Committee
Q8. Panna National Park located in which state- Madhya Pradesh
Q9. Where is the headquarter of City Union Bank- Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu
Q10. What is the meaning of LTV in Baning and Financial World- Loan-to-Value
Q11. Dudhawa Dam is built across- Mahanadi River
Q12. The World Economic Outlook (WEO) published by- International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Q13. Which country has won U-17 FIFA world cup- England
Q14. 12th November is celebrated as- World Pneumonia Day
Q15. Fugdi is a Goan folk dance is related to which state- Goa
Q16. How much fund for MNREGA in Budget 2017-18- Rs48,000 crore
Q17. Tallinn is capital city of- Estonia
Q18. MV Sridhar died recently. He was a- Crickter
Q19. Head of merger of public sector banks- Arun Jaitley
Q20. One Question related to KCC
Q21. The Book ‘India 2017 Yearbook" is authored by- Rajeev Mehrishi
Q22. The ease of doing business report published by- World Bank
Q23. What is the meaning of "U" in AMRUT- Urban (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation)
Q24. Headquarters of Amnesty International- London, UK
Q25. IPPB maximum deposit limit is- Rs 1 Lakh
Q26. Headquarters of International Weightlifting Federation situated in- Budapest, Hungary
Q27. One Questions related to recapitalization by RBI
Q28. The 2018 Commonwealth Games 2018 will be held in- Australia
Q29. which country will be the world's largest economy by 2050- China
Q30. The budget provided NABARD with an additional budget- Rs20,000 crore 

Wednesday, 8 November 2017


Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released the Score Card for IBPS PO prelims examination 2017. The preliminary exam was held on 07th, 08th and 14th of October 2017. Keep following Bankeradda and Adda247 for latest updates.

We congratulate all the students who have been selected for IBPS PO Mains and all those who got the disappointment this time need to work harder as something big is waiting for them.

Cutoff Score For General Category:

SubjectsEnglish LanguageQuantitative AptitudeReasoning AbilityTotal
Maximum Score303535100
Cutoff Score05.0007.7510.0042.75


CategoryCut off
Scheduled Caste (SC)36.00
Scheduled Tribe (ST)28.50
Other Backward Classes (OBC)42.25
General (Gen)42.75
Hearing Impaired15.75
Orthopaedically Challenged28.75
Visually Impaired23.25
Intellectual Disability17.75



Wednesday, 1 November 2017


Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has declared the result for online IBPS PO/MT 2017 prelims examination. You can check your result here. The preliminary exam was held on 07th, 08th and 14th of October 2017. We congratulate all the selected candidates for IBPS PO Mains, which is scheduled to held on 26th November 2017 and all those who could not clear it this time, need not get upset as there are many more golden opportunities coming their way.

On 05th and 12th November, many of you will be having the IBPS RRB Mains Exam. So don't panic and hold your horses, get yourself ready for the big opportunity  All The Best!!!


                                        IBPS PO Prelims Result Status

Tuesday, 24 October 2017


Directions (1-5): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? 

Q1. 177,     170,     159,     146,     ? ,     110
(a) 132
(b) 106
(c) 129
(d) 127
(e) None of these

Q2. 2,     3,     11,     38,     ?  ,     227
(a) 402
(b) 182
(c) 227
(d) 168
(e) 102

Q3. 7,     17,     54,        ?,        1098,     6591
(a) 204
(b) 212
(c) 223
(d) 219
(e) None of these

Q4. 55,     109,     ? ,     433,     865,     1729
(a) 279
(b) 372
(c) 217
(d) 318
(e) None of these

Q5. 1/2,     1,     1 1/2,     2,     2 1/2,     3,     ? 
(a) 3 1/2
(b) 2 1/3
(c) 4
(d) 3 1/4
(e) None of these


Q6. P and Q started a business by investing Rs. 45,000 and Rs.54,000 respectively. After four months R joined the business with a capital of Rs. 30,000. After two more months Q left the business with his capital. At the end of the year P got a share of Rs. 13,500 in the profit. What is the total profit earned?
(a) Rs 26800
(b) Rs 27600
(c) Rs 28600
(d) Rs 29200
(e) none of these


Q7. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs. 7,200 in six years at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 2 years? 
(a) Rs. 1,020
(b) Rs. 1,055
(c) Rs. 2,050
(d) Rs. 1,025
(e) None of these


Q8. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is increased by 100%. The resultant fraction is 1 11/19. What was the original fraction ? 
(a) 15/19
(b) 13/19
(c) 5/9
(d) 4/9
(e) None of these


Q9. At present, Meena is eight times her daughter’s age. Eight years from now, the ratio of the ages of Meena and her daughter will be 10 : 3 respectively. What is Meena’s present age ? 
(a) 32 yr
(b) 40 yr
(c) 36 yr
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of the above


Q10. An amount of money is to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by C is Rs. 4,000 more than the amount received by B, what will be the total amount received by A and B together ?
(a) Rs. 8000                                  
(b) Rs. 12,000                      
(c) Rs. 16,000
(d) Can’t be determined      
(e) None of these


Directions (11-15): Given below is the table which shows the 5 products sold by a manufacturer, % discount offered on marked price and % profit earned on cost price. 



Q11. What is the ratio of Marked price and cost price of article B. 
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 7 : 4
(d) 9 : 5
(e) 7 : 6

Q12. If total profit on selling 5 units of E type product is 210 then find the marked price per unit of article E. 
(a) 126
(b) 175
(c) 189
(d) 168
(e) 133

Q13. If cost price of product A and D is same then find the ratio of marked price of product A to the marked price of product D. 
(a) 255 : 256
(b) 143 : 144
(c) 178 : 189
(d) 160 : 163
(e) 233 : 224

Q14. If marked price of article A is 180 then find the cost price of article A. 
(a) 64
(b) 72
(c) 128
(d) 122
(e) 144

Q15. Percentage of profit earned on product E is what percent more than percentage of profit earned on product B. 
(a) 66 2/3%
(b) 33 1/3%
(c) 75%
(d) 87.5%
(e) 14%



Saturday, 21 October 2017


The trick to scoring in English section can vary from one person to another depending on his/her strengths and weaknesses. The questions asked in this section can be easily handled if your basics are clear. Sometimes, even those who can communicate very well in English, fail to perform to the best of their ability in competitive exams. Instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Following are a few tips on how you can do well in the upcoming RRB Mains Examination.

If you are good at vocab and reading then attempt the reading comprehension first and proceed with Cloze Test and other miscellaneous topics like Error Detection, Para Jumbles, Phrase Replacement, Double Fillers, etc.  The Reading comprehension too should be attempted in a way that you attempt questions based on vocab and phrases first and then the questions that need a deep penetration through the paragraphs. There will be 15 questions based on Reading Comprehension. 4-5 questions out of these 15 questions will be based on vocabulary, i.e. synonyms and antonyms. Rest of the questions will be related to the paragraph in which tone off the writer of the essence of the paragraph can be asked. 

Next comes the error detection portion. There will be a total of 5 question based on errors. To perform well in errors, you need to work on parts of speech, adjective, and subject-verb agreement. Some errors may also be based on narration, so, if one doesn't want to miss out anything then he/she must have the knowledge of narration too. The next important topic is Sentence fillers. Generally, double fillers are asked that are 5 in number. But, this year there is a possibility of triple fillers also as the difficulty level of exams has only been rising.  For fillers, you need to work on vocabulary as most of the questions are based on vocab only. A similar topic to fillers is the Cloze test and the questions based on it will be 10 in number. In cloze test, the fillers can be based on both grammar as well as vocabulary. Along with vocabulary, have the parts of speech and subject-verb agreement all grasped to attempt sufficient number of questions in Cloze test.

Next important topic is para jumbles. You may get to see a total of 5 questions based on para jumble.  The good thing about para jumbles is that you can manage to do it even if you are weak in English as it doesn't test your grammar or vocabulary, you just need to find the connection between two parts. Also, keep in mind that there has to be a continuation in the paragraph when you rearrange the sentences. Try to do with the section within 21-23 minutes. Practice is the only key to success. Keep practicing with the daily quizzes being provided by Crackbankexam and you will bring the house down for sure.

Thursday, 12 October 2017


Directions (1-5): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q1. 3.6 + 36.6 + 3.66 + 0.36 + 3.0 = ?
(a) 44.22
(b) 77.22
(c) 74.22
(d) 47.22
(e) None of these

Q2. 23 × 45 ÷ 15 = ?
(a) 69
(b) 65
(c) 63
(d) 71
(e) None of these

Q5. 83% of 2350 = ?
(a) 1509.5
(b) 1950.5
(c) 1905.5
(d) 1590.5
(e) None of these

Directions (6-10): In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer:
(a) If x < y
(b) If x > y
(c) If x ≥ y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Q6. I. 2x² - 7x+ 3 = 0
 II. 2y² - 7y + 6 = 0

Q7. I. 4x² + 16x +15 = 0
 II. 2y² + 3y + 1 = 0

Q8. I. 9x² - 45x + 56 = 0
 II. 4y² - 17y + 18 = 0

Q9. I. 2x² + 11x + 14 = 0
 II. 2y² + 15y + 28 = 0

Q10. I. 6x² + 11x + 4 = 0
 II. 4y² - 7y – 2 = 0

Q11. Sushil got 103 marks in Hindi, 111 marks in Science, 98 marks in Sanskrit, 110 marks in Maths and 88 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if Sushil scored 85 percent marks in all the subjects together, what are the maximum marks of each subject?
(a) 110
(b) 120
(c) 115
(d) 100
(e) None of these

Q12. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a square field along its perimeter at the speed of 39.6 km/hr in 1 min 20 sec. What is the area of the field?
(a) 52900 sq. m
(b) 44100 sq. m
(c) 48400 sq. m
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q13. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together? 
(a) 720
(b) 1440
(c) 5040
(d) 3600
(e) 4800

Q14. A committee of five members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6 research associates. In how many different ways can this be done if the committee should have all the 4 professors and 1 research associate or all 3 trainees and 2 professors? 
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 12
(e) None of these

Q15. In a container there are 28 eggs out of which 8 eggs are rotten. If two eggs are chosen at random, what will be the probability that atleast one egg is rotten? 
(a) 94/189
(b) 95/187
(c) 93/189
(d) 97/189
(e) None of these



Batch for IBPS PO/Clerk & RRB NTPC 2017 Starts From 16th October 2017. For Any Query Call : 9828097824.

Directions (1-5): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.

Q1. (18.001)3= ?
(a) 5830
(b) 5500
(c) 6000
(d) 6480
(e) None of these
Q2. (9999 ÷ 99) ÷ 9 = ?
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 6
(d) 11
(e) 20

Q3. 22.005% of 449.999 = ?
(a) 85
(b) 99
(c) 125
(d) 75
(e) 150

Q4. 5554.999 ÷ 50.007 = ?
(a) 111
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 50
(e) 125

Q5. 23.001 × 18.999 × 7.998 = ?
(a) 4200
(b) 3000
(c) 3496
(d) 4000
(e) 2500

Q6. Raman’s present age is three times his daughter’s and 9/13  times of his mother’s present age. The sum of the present ages of all three of them is 125 years. What is the difference between the present ages of Raman’s daughter and Raman’s mother?
(a) 45 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 50 years
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q7. The sum of the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square is equal to 272 cm. The diameter of the circle is 56 cm. What is the sum of the areas of the circle and the square?
(a) 2464 sq cm
(b) 2644 sq cm
(c) 3040 sq cm
(d) cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q8. The largest and the second largest angle of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3.The smallest angle is half the largest angle. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest angles of the triangle?
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 40°
(d) 20°
(e) None of these

Q9. Kamya purchased an item for Rs 46,000 and sold it at a loss of 12 percent. With that amount, she purchased another item and sold it at a gain of 12 percent. What was her overall gain/loss?
(a) Loss of Rs 662.40
(b) Profit of Rs 662.40
(c) Loss of Rs 642.80
(d) Profit of Rs 642.80
(e) None of these

Q10. The call rate of a SIM company A is one paisa for every three seconds. Another SIM for company B charges 45 paise per minute. A man talked for 591 seconds from the SIM of company A and 780 seconds from the SIM of company B. What would be the total amount he spent?
(a) Rs 7.80
(b) Rs 7.40
(c) Rs 7.46
(d) Rs 7.82
(e) Rs 8.46

Directions (11-15): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

Q11. 32, 49, 83, 151, 287, 559, ?
(a) 1118
(b) 979
(c) 1103
(d) 1120
(e) None of these

Q12. 462, 552, 650, 756, 870, 992, ?
(a) 1040
(b) 1122
(c) 1132
(d) 1050
(e) None of these

Q13. 15, 18, 16, 19, 17, 20, ?
(a) 23
(b) 22
(c) 16
(d) 18
(e) None of these

Q14. 1050, 420, 168, 67.2, 26.88, 10.752, ?
(a) 4.3008
(b) 6.5038
(c) 4.4015
(d) 5.6001
(e) None of these

Q15. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(a) 343
(b) 280
(c) 335
(d) 295
(e) None of these

Tuesday, 10 October 2017


निर्देश(1-5): निम्नलिखित प्रश् नीचे दिये गये तीन अक्षर वाले पांच शब्दो पर आधारित हैं।

HIS MAN XUV NET POS
(ध्यान दें- दिये गये निर्देशों का प्रयोग करके बनाये गये शब् अंग्रेजी के अर्थपूर्ण शब् हो सकतें है अथवा नहीं भी)

1. यदि सभी शब्दो के पहले और तीसरे अक्षरों को आपस में बदल दिया जाये तो अंग्रेजी के कितने अर्थपूर्ण शब् बनेंगे?
a. कोई नहीं      b. एक
c. दो             d. तीन
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

2. यदि सभी शब्दों के पहले अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला के पूर्व अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये और सभी शब्दों के तीसरे अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला के अगले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये तो इस प्रकार बने कितने शब्दो में एक से अधिक स्वर होंगे?
a. कोई नहीं                b. एक
c. दो                       d. तीन
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

3. यदि सभी शब्दों के पहले और दूसरे अक्षर को आपस में बदल दिया जाता है, तो अंग्रेजी के कितने अर्थपूर्ण शब् बनेंगे?
a. एक            b. दो
c. तीन            d. तीन से अधिक
e. कोई नहीं

4. यदि प्रत्येक शब् में सभी अक्षरों को अंग्रेजी वर्णामाला के अनुसार व्यवस्थित (शब् के भीतर) किया जाये तो इस प्रकार बने कितने शब् अपरिवर्तित रहेंगे?
a. कोई नहीं                b. एक
c. दो                       d. तीन
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

5. अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में तीसरे शब् के दूसरे अक्षर और पांचवे शब् के तीसरे अक्षर के बीच कितने शब् हैं?
a. VII          b. V
c. I              d. II
e. IV

दिशा-निर्देश(6-8): निम्न जानकारी का अध्ययन करें और प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।
P, Q की मां है| R, P का पति है| S, Q का अकेला भाई है| T, S के साथ विवाहित है| U, T का अकेला बच्चा है| S के कोई बहन नहीं है। V, R का पिता है|

6. यदि R के कोई भी पोता नहीं है, तो U, Q से कैसे संबंधित है?
a. निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता है  b. सिस्टर-इन-लॉ
c. बहू                                d. भतीजी
e. भतीजा

7. R, T से कैसे संबंधित है?
a. चाचा          b. निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता है
c. ससुर           d. भतीजा
e. ब्रदर-इन-लॉ

8. Q, V से कैसे संबंधित है?
a. पिता           b. भतीजा
c. ब्रदर-इन-लॉ    d. भाई
e. पोता

निर्देश(9-10): निम्नलिखित जानकारी को पढ़ें और दिये गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें-
A#B का अर्थ है B, A के दांयीं ओर 5मी की दूरी पर है।
A$B का अर्थ है B, A के 10मी उत्तर में है।
A*B का अर्थ है B, A के 20मी बांयीं ओर है।
A@B का अर्थ है B, A के 15मी दक्षिण में है।
प्रत्येक प्रश् में बांयीं ओर से पहला व्यक्ति बांयीं ओर देख रहा है।

9. दी गयी जानकारी Y@S*P के अनुसार P, Y से कितनी दूर और किस दिशा में है?
a. 5 मी दक्षिण-पूर्व                  b. 25 मी उत्तर-पश्चिम
c. 25 मी दक्षिण-पश्चिम           d. (√30) मी उत्तर-पूर्व
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

10. दी गयी जानकारी का प्रयोग करें और ज्ञात करें अभिव्यक्ति M#N$J में M के संदर्भ में J किस दिशा में है?
a. उत्तर          b. दक्षिण-पश्चिम
c. दक्षिण-पूर्व     d. उत्तर-पूर्व
e. उत्तर-पश्चिम

निर्देश(11-15): निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में प्रतीको @, $, ©, % और # का प्रयोग नीचे दर्शाये गये संकेतों के साथ किया गया है।
M $ N का अर्थ M, N से तो छोटा है ही बराबर है।
M # N का अर्थ M, N से छोटा नहीं है।
M @ N का अर्थ M, N से बड़ा नहीं है।
M % N का अर्थ M, N से तो छोटा है और ना ही बड़ा है।
M © N का अर्थ M, N से तो बड़ा है और ही बराबर है।

निम्नलिखित प्रत्येक प्रश्नो में सही विकल् चुने।
11. कथन: S $ N, N © X, X @ R, R % F
निष्कर्ष:
I. S # X
II. F #X
III. N © R
IV. S © F

a. केवल I सत् है।
b. केवल II और III सत् है।
c. केवल I और III सत् है।
d. कोई सत् नहीं है।
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

12. कथन: A % I, F © I, F @ L, L © P
निष्कर्ष:
I. A © P
I. P $ F
III. I $ L
IV. F % A
a. केवल I सत् है।
b. केवल II सत् है।
c. केवल III और IV सत् है।
d. सभी सत् हैं।
e. इनमें से कोई नहीं

13. कथन: S © T, T # L, L $ K, K % U
निष्कर्ष:
I. T $ U
II. L $ U
III. T # K
IV. S © U
a. केवल I और II सत् है।
b. केवल III और IV सत् है।
c. केवल II और III सत् है।
d. केवल I सत् है।
e. सभी सत् हैं।

14. कथन: R © B, B # L, L @ N, N © P
निष्कर्ष:
I. N $ R
II. B # P
III. L © P
IV. B % N
a. केवल I सत् है।
b. केवल III और IV सत् हैं।
c. केवल III सत् है।
d. कोई सत् नहीं है।
e. सभी सत् हैं।

15. कथन: X @ F, F $ M, M © C, C @ T
निष्कर्ष:
I. F $ C
II. T $ X
III. M © X
IV. T $ M
a. केवल I, II और III सत् हैं।
b. केवल II और III सत् है।
c. केवल II सत् है।
d. केवल IV सत् है।
e. सभी सत् हैं।

16. यदि HONESTLY शब् के प्रत्येक स्वर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला के अगले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये और प्रत्येक व्यंजन को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला के पिछले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाये और इस प्रकार प्राप् शब् के अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला के अनुसार बांयें से दांयें क्रम में व्यवस्थित कर दिया जाये तो कितने अक्षरों का स्थान अपरिवर्तित रहेगा (पहले व्यवस्थित किये गये वर्णमाला क्रम के अनुसार)?
a. कोई नहीं                b. एक
c. दो                       d. तीन
e. तीन से अधिक

17. शब्द CREATIVE के पहले, दूसरे, चौथे, पांचवे तथा आठवें अक्षरेां का प्रयोग करके R से आरंभ होने वाला एक सार्थक शब्द बनाया गया है। तदनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा अक्षर उस शब्द का मध्य अक्षर है?
a. E             b. T
c. C             d. A

e. R


Batch for IBPS PO/Clerk & RRB NTPC 2017 Starts From 9th October 2017. For Any Query Call : 9828097824.

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