History Quiz-14 for SSC CHSL / CGL 2016-17

1. Who was the first king to conquer Malwa, Gujarat and Maharashtra ?
(a) Skandagupta
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Chandragupta Maurya 

Answer: Chandragupta Maurya 

2. Name the great Hindu King who combined in himself the qualities of Samudragupta and Ashoka ?
(a) Harshavardhana
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kanishka
(d) Chandragupta I

Answer: Harshavardhana

3. The Arab conquest of Sindh took place in
(a) 712 A.D.
(b) 1009 A.D.
(c) 740 A.D.
(d) 1001 A.D.

Answer: 712 A.D.

4. Sakas were finally overthrown by
(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(b) Devapala
(c) Gautamiputra Satakarni
(d) Kanishka

Answer: Gautamiputra Satakarni

5. Who among the following was not a Saka ruler?
(a) Nahapana
(b) Menander
(c) Rudradaman
(d) Sodassa

Answer: Menander

6. Maurya empire declined after Ashoka mainly because of
(a) Weak successors of Asoka
(b) Decentralisation of powers
(c) Ashoka's excessive patronage to Buddhism.
(d) The policy of ahimsa leading to military weakness.

Answer: Weak successors of Asoka

7. In early ancient India, the largest urban centre was
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Kanauj
(c) Taxila
(d) Kausambi

Answer: Pataliputra

8. Which Saka ruler was responsible for important irrigation works in Saurashtra ?
(a) Nahapana
(b) None of these
(c) Menander
(d) Rudradaman

Answer: Rudradaman

9. The most important kingdom in Deccan and Central India after the Mauryas was the
(a) Pallavas
(b) Satavahanas
(c) Cholas
(d) Vakatakas

Answer: Satavahanas

10. Which of the following dynasties ruled over Magadha in the 6th century B.C. ?
(a) Sisunaga
(b) Haryanka
(c) Mauryas
(d) Nandas

Answer: Haryanka

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General Awareness Questions Asked for IPPB Mains Scale-1 2016-17

Q1. Christiano Ronaldo is associated with which of the following sport?
(a) Hockey
(b) Football
(c) Cricket
(d) Tennis
(e) Golf

Q2. Maharana Pratap sagar Dam is located in which of the following state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh 
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Punjab

Q3.Padhar dance is the folk dance of which of the following state of India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat 
(e) Maharashtra

Q4.“Banking” term is defined under Section 5(b) of _____ 
(a) The ReserveBank of India Act–1934
(b) Negotiable Instrument Act–1881
(c) The State Bank of India Act–1955
(d) The National Housing Bank Act–1987
(e) The Banking Regulation Act-1949

Q5.Apart from savings account what type of account can have balance upto 1 lakh in payment banks? 
(a) Fixed deposit
(b) Current Account
(c) Reccuring deposit
(d) Term deposit
(e) Comulative deposit

Q6. Vansda National park is located in which of the following state?
(a) Gujarat 
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Rajasthan

Q7. Amman is the Capital of which of the following country?
(a) Jordan 
(b) Israel
(c) Lebanon
(d) Iraq
(e) Syria

Q8. Licence provided to payment bank is comes under which of the following act –  Section 22 of 
(a) The Reserve Bank of India Act–1934
(b) Negotiable Instrument Act–1881
(c) The State Bank of India Act–1955
(d) The National Housing Bank Act–1987
(e) The Banking Regulation Act-1949 

Q9. Bade fateh ali khan passed away recently was associated with which of the following field?
(a) Vocalist 
(b) Director
(c) Guitarist
(d) Sitar player
(e) Producer

Q10. How much stake of govt. in India post payment Bank?
(a) 100% 
(b) 75%
(c) 49%
(d) 51%
(e) 25%

Q11. Which day observed on 3rd March?
(a) World NGO Day
(b) World Social media day
(c) International Women's Day
(d) World Cancer Day
(e) World Wildlife Day 

Q12. Asian Games 2018 will be hosted by which country?
(a) South Korea
(b) Indonesia 
(c) China
(d) Qatar
(e) India

Q13. Gandhi stadium is located in which of the following city?
(a) Delhi
(b) Pune, Maharashtra
(c) Jalandhar, Punjab 
(d) Kanpur, UP
(e) Udaipur, Rajasthan

Q14. EMI is a fixed payment amount made by a borrower to a lender at a specified date each calendar month. What does E stand for in EMI?   
(a) Equivalent
(b) Equal
(c) Equated 
(d) Equity
(e) Equalize

Q15. Where is the Head Quarters of Islamic Military Alliance to Fight Terrorism (IMAFT)?
(a) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia 
(b) Amman, Jordan
(c) Arad, Israel
(d) Sofia, Bulgaria
(e) Cairo, Egypt

Q16. Commercial papers is which type of Instrument?
(a) Capital market Instrument
(b) Money market instruments 
(c) Type of bank loans
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q17. Committee formed for Modernizing the monetary policy framework is headed by?
(a) R M Lodha Committee
(b) Deepak Naik Committee
(c) B N Srikrishna Committee 
(d) Akhilesh Ranjan Committee
(e) N K Singh Committee

Q18. Subsidy offered on interest rates is known as _____ ?
(a) Interest Allowance
(b) Interest annuity
(c) Interest subsidy
(d) Interest subvention 
(e) Interest Aid

Q19. The International kite festival is held in which state of India?
(a) Gujarat 
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Rajasthan 

Q20. Who is the Author of the Book “Death under the Deodars”?
(a) Amitav Ghosh
(b) Fahad Shah
(c) Vikram Seth
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) Ruskin Bond 


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Computer Awareness for IBPS PO / SBI PO 2017

1. In Web Word “URL” use for? 
a)Ultra Resource Locator 
b)Ultimate Resource Locator 
c)Universal Resource Locator 
d)Uniform Resource Locator
e)None of these.

2. Word “GSM” is Abbreviation of? 
a)General System for Mobile Community 
b)Global System for Mobile Communication 
c)General System for Mobile Communication 
d)Global System for Mobile Community
e)None of these.

3. The Word” RTS “is Abbreviation of? 
a)Real Technology Streaming 
b)Real Time Streaming 
c)Real Time System 
d)Real Technology System
e)None of these.

4. Word “CDMA” is Abbreviation of? 
a)Communication Division Multiple Access 
b)Code Division Multiple Access 
c)Communication Division Multimedia Access 
d)Code Division Multimedia Access
e)None of these.

5. In Computer”IP” Stands for? 
a)Internet Pool 
b)Intelligent Protocol 
c)Internet Process 
d)Internet Protocol
e)None of these.

6. Word “AVI” is Abbreviation of? 
a)Audio Video Internet 
b)Audio Video Interactive 
c)Audio Video Inter 
d)Audio Video Interleave
e)None of these.

7. In Internet” HTTP “Word Stand for? 
a)Hyper Text Transfer Pool 
b)Hyper Text Transfer Protocol 
c)High Technology Transfer Protocol 
d)High Technology Transfer Pool
e)None of these.

8. Word “USB” Stand For? 
a)Universal Serial Bus 
b)Uniform Serial Bus 
c)Universal Serial Boost 
d)Ultra Serial Bus
e)None of these.

9. The Word”SIS” is Stand For? 
a)Symbian OS Installer program 
b)System OS Installer File 
c)Symbian OS Installer File 
d)System OS Installer program
e)None of these.

10. The Word “UMTS” is Abbreviation of? 
a)Universal Mobile Telecommunication on System 
b)Uniform Mobile Telecommunication on System 
c)Uniform Multimedia Telecommunication on System 
d)Universal Mobile Technology on System


ANSWERS :

1. d
2. b
3. c
4. b
5. d
6. d
7. b
8. a
9. c
10.a

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Polity Quiz-13 for SSC CHSL/CGL 2016-17

Q1.The Constitution of India has provided for–
(a) single citizenship 
(b) multiple citizenship 
(C) double citizenship 
(d) None of these 

Q2. The details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in..
(a) Part II on the Constitution 
(b) The Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) Schedule I of the Constitution
(d) Various enactments by the Parliament

Q3. In which of the following ways can Indian citizenship be acquired?
(a) By descent
(b) By naturalisation
(c) By registration
(d) All of these

Q4. The detailed provisions regarding acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship are contained in the Citizenship Act, which was passed by..
(a) The Indian Parliament in 1955
(b) The Indian Parliament in 1950
(c) The British Parliament in August 1948
(d) The Constituent Assembly in 1949

Q5. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Descent
(c) Acquiring property
(d) Naturalisation

Q6. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental rights?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Q7. Which union territory became the 25th state of India?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Sikkim
(c) Goa
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Q8. Which of the following union territories has a legislative Assembly?
(a) Puducherry
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Daman & Diu
(d) Dadra & Nagar Haveli

Q9. Goa, before getting freedom, was under the control of which colonial power?
(a) French
(b) British
(c) Portuguese
(d) Dutch

Q10. The state of Goa got the statehood in the year of..
(a) 1956
(b) 1957
(c) 1986
(d) 1987

Q11. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
(a) The Union Cabinet
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Law Commission

Q12. With what subjects do the Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution of India deal?
(a) Indian Union and its territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Union Executives

Q13. In which part of the Constitution details of citizenship are mentioned?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV

Q14. A person will lose his citizenship, if..
(a) He voluntarily surrenders his citizenship
(b) The government withdraws his citizenship
(c) He voluntarily accepts citizenship of another country
(d) All of the above

Q15. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nager Hawali were under French colonial rule till 1954


ANSWERS :

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S12. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol.

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Mixture and Alligation Quiz for IBPS PO / SBI PO 2017

Q1. A vessel has 30 L of wine and 10 L of water mixture. 4L of mixture is taken out from vessel and 4 L of water is added. This process is repeated one more time. The ratio of quantity of wine is left and initial quantity of wine is 
(a) 80 : 92
(b) 81 : 100
(c) 45 : 47
(d) 89 : 91 
(e) None of these 

Q2. There are two vessels A and B. Vessel A is containing 40L of pure milk and vessel B is containing 22L of pure water. From vessel A, 8L of milk is taken out and poured into vessel B. Then, 6L of mixture (milk and water) is taken out from vessel B and poured into vessel A. What is the ratio of the quantity of pure milk in vessel A to the quantity of pure water in vessel B?  
(a) 14 : 9
(b) 21 : 11
(c) 24 : 13
(d) 14 : 5 
(e) 21 : 13  

Q3. In two vessels A and B, there is mixture of milk and water. The ratio of milk and water in these vessels is 5 : 2 and 8 : 5, respectively. In what ratio these mixtures be mixed together, so that the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture becomes 9 : 4?  
(a) 7 : 2
(b) 2 : 7
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 3 
(e) 7 : 9 

Q4. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7 : 2 and 7 : 11, respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to from a third alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper in C will be  
(a) 5 : 7
(b) 5 : 9
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 9 : 5
(e) None of these 

Q5. When one litre of water is added to a mixture of acid and water, the new mixture contains 20% acid. When one litre of acid is added to the new mixture, then the resulting mixture contains 100/3% acid. The percentage of acid in the original mixture was  
(a) 20%
(b) 22%
(c) 24%
(d) 25%
(e) None of these 

Q6. Two barrels contain a mixture of ethanol and gasoline. The content of the ethanol is 60% in the first barrel and 30% in the second barrel. In what ratio must be mixtures from the first and the second barrels be taken, to from a mixture containing 50% ethanol?   
(a) 1 : 2 
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 3 : 2
(e) None of these 

Q7. In a mixture of milk and water, the proportion of water by weight was 75%. If in the 60 gm mixture, 15 gm water was added, what would be the percentage of what in the new mixture?  
(a) 75%
(b) 88%
(c) 90%
(d) 100%
(e) None of these 

Q8. The wheat sold by a grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality wheat should be added to 150 kg of wheat, so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?  
(a) 150 kg 
(b) 135 kg 
(c) 50 kg 
(d) 85 kg 
(e) None of these 

Q9. In 1 kg mixture of sand and iron, 20% is iron. How much sand should be added, so that the proportion of iron becomes 5%?  
(a) 3 kg 
(b) 4 gm 
(c) 5 gm 
(d) 6 kg 
(e) None of these 

Q10. A man purchased 35 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 9.50 per kg and 30 kg at the rate of Rs. 10.50 per kg. He mixed the two. Approximately, at what price (in Rupees) per kg should he sell the mixture to make 35% profit in the transaction?  
(a) 12
(b) 12.50
(c) 13
(d) 13.50
(e) 11 


ANSWERS :


S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Initial quantity of milk in vessel A = 40 L
Initial quantity of water in vessel B = 22 L
Now, 8 L milk is poured to vessel B
∴ Quantity of milk left in vessel,
A = 40 - 8 = 32L
∴ quantity of milk in vessel B = 8L
And quantity of water in vessel B = 22L
∴ (Milk : water) in vessel
B = 8 : 22 = 4 : 11
Now, 6 L of mixture (milk and water) is taken out from vessel B and poured into vessel A.

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Error Spotting Quiz for SSC CHSL / CGL 2016-17

1.   (a) The table’s legs /(b) have been /(c) elaborately carved. /(d) No error.


2    (a) The sceneries /(b) of Kashmir /(c) is very charming. /(d) No error



3.   (a) He/(b) takes pain /(c) over his work. /(d) No error



4.   (a) My sister /(b) has read /(c) pages after pages of the Bible. /(d) No error



5.   (a) I went to the temple /(b) with my parents, aunts /(c) and cousin sisters. /(d) No error



6.   (a) The beautiful /(b) surrounding of the place /(c) enchanted me. /(d) No error



7    (a) The Manager put forward /(b) a number of criterions /(c) for the post. /(d) No error



8.   (a) I like /(b) the poetries /(c) of Byron and Shelley. /(d) No error



9.   (a) No Porter being available /(b) he carried /(c) all his luggages himself. /(d) No error



10. (a) When I entered the bedroom /(b) I saw a snake crawling /(c) on the ground. /(d) No error



Answers :-


1. (a); ‘Table’s legs’ should be changed into ‘legs of table’. ‘s’ is generally not used with non     living things.

2. (a); Change ‘sceneries’ into ‘scenery’. Scenery is an uncountable noun.

3. (b);‘take pains’ is correct. It means ‘to work hard’.

4. (c); If a noun comes on the either side of a preposition, the noun will come in singular form. ‘Page after Page’ is correct.

5. (c); Change ‘cousin sisters’ into ‘cousins’ 

6. (b); Surrounding is the ‘ing’ form of verb ‘surround’. Use ‘Surroundings’. It means the area around someone or something.

7. (b); ‘Criteria’ is plural of ‘criterion’.

8. (b); ‘Poetry’ is an uncountable noun. Hence it is singular and it does not have any plural form.

9. (c); Change ‘luggages’ into ‘luggage’. It is an uncountable noun. Hence it must be in singular  form.

10.(c); ‘Ground’ means the surface of earth. Change ‘ground’ into ‘floor’.


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Number Series Quiz for IBPS PO / SBI PO 2017

Directions (Q.1-10): In each of the following questions, one of the terms in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 

Q1. 146, 74, 40, 23, 19.5, 18.75 
(a) 74
(b) 23
(c) 19.5
(d) 18.75
(e) 40

Q2. 2, 21, 3, 32, 4, 41, 5, 51
(a) 21
(b) 4
(c) 32
(d) 41
(e) 51

Q3. 1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777
(a) 21
(b) 129
(c) 10
(d) 356
(e) 777

Q4. 2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567
(a) 6
(b) 24
(c) 285
(d) 567
(e) 96

Q5. 0, 1, 3, 8, 18, 35, 62
(a) 62
(b) 35
(c) 18
(d) 8
(e) None of these 

Q6. 14, 916, 2536, 4960, 81100
(a) 4960
(b) 2536
(c) 916
(d) 14
(e) None of these 

Q7. 7, 56, 8, 14, 195, 15, 20, 420, 21
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 20
(d) 15
(e) None of these 

Q8. 1521, 39, 1681, 41, 1749, 43
(a)  1521
(b) 1681
(c) 41
(d) 1749
(e) None of these 

Q9. 1.5, 4, 20, 120, 1048, 10505
(a) 120
(b) 20
(c) 1048
(d) 4
(e) None of these 

Q10. 4, 5, 12, 38, 160, 805, 4836
(a) 12
(b) 160 
(c) 38
(d) 805
(e) None of these 

ANSWERS :

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Geography Quiz-14 for SSC CHSL/CGL 2016-17

1. Which is the largest river in the world in terms of volume of water?  
A.  Nile
B.  Brahmaputra
C.  Amazon
D.  Yangtze

2. Which one of the following Indian states is the largest producer of natural rubber?  
A.  Tamilnadu
B.  Kerala
C.  Assam
D.  Andhra Pradesh

3. Which palnet is known as the Earth’s twin?  
A.  Venus
B.  Mars
C.  Uranus
D.  Neptune

4. There is rainfall in winter in Tamil Nadu due to the following reasons  
A.  South-West Monsoon
B.  North-East Monsoon
C.  Tropical cost Current
D.  None of these

5. Diesel locomotives are manufactured at  
A.  Kapurthala
B.  Perambur
C.  Varanasi
D.  Jamshedpur

6. The second largest river basin in india is of the river  
A.  Brahmaputra
B.  Narmada
C.  Krishna
D.  Godavari

7. Which one of the following is the Second largest river of India?  
A.  Godavari
B.  Yamuna
C.  Narmada
D.  Bramhaputra

8. The country having the largest area under tea cultivation is  
A.  Brazil
B.  Russia
C.  Bangladesh
D.  India

9. After textile, the second largest industry of India is  
A.  Sugar
B.  Jute
C.  Cement
D.  None of these

10. Which Country have minimum length of international border along with India ?  
A.  Bhutan
B.  Nepal
C.  Myanmar
D.  Afganistan


Answers : 

1-C
2-B
3-A
4-B
5-C
6-D
7-A
8-D
9-A
10-A

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