Wednesday, 31 May 2017


SSC repeats many previous years questions. Every day, we provide quizzes on all the topics of History. SSC CGL Pre 2017 Exam is scheduled tentatively in the month of AUGUST 2017. At Crackbankexam, we are providing History Quiz of 15 important last year question. Only 2 months are left for exams, boost up your preparation with us.

Q1. Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name of Ashoka?
(a) Kalsi
(b) Rummindei
(c) Special Kalinga Edict
(d) Maski
Ans.(d)

Q2. The Ashoka major rock edicts which tell us about the Chola, Pandya, Satyaputta and Kerelaputta?
(a) I and VII 
(b) II and III
(c) II and XII 
(d) II and XIII
Ans.(d)

Q3. Which one of the following texts of ancient India allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband?
(a) Kamasutra 
(b) Arthashastra
(c) Sukra Nitisara 
(d) Mudrarakshasa
Ans.(b)

Q4. Who was the leader of Kanpur spear heading Revolt of 1857?
(a) Birjis Quadir 
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Saheb 
(d) Kunwar Singh
Ans.(c)


Q5. Who influenced Mahadev Govind Ranade to establish Prathana Samaj in Bombay?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Devendra Nath Tagore
(c) Keshav Chandra Sen
(d) Tek Chand Mitra
Ans.(c)

Q6. Ganpati Festival in Maharashtra was started by
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans.(a)

Q7. Who among the following had joined Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi?
(a) Birbal 
(b) Bhagwan Das
(c) Man Singh 
(d) Surjan Rai
Ans.(a)

Q8. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak?
(a) Amritsar 
(b) Nabha
(c) Nankana 
(d) Nander
Ans.(c)

Q9. Who of the following Sikh Guru was started Gurumukhi script?
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Guru Angad
(c) Guru Arjundev
(d) Guru Govind Singh
Ans.(b)

Q10.During the Rigvedic period, ‘Niska’ was an ornament of :
(a) Ear 
(b) Neck
(c) Arm 
(d) Wrist
Ans.(b)


Q11.Buddha means :
(a) The enlightened one
(b) The religious preacher
(c) The genius
(d) The powerful
Ans.(a)

Q12.The second Buddhist council was held during the region of
(a) Ajatashatru 
(b) Kanishka
(c) Kalashoka 
(d) Ashoka
Ans.(c)

Q13.The Mughal emperor who prohibited the use of Tobacco was
(a) Akbar 
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan 
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans.(b)

Q14.In the third battle of Panipat, Marathas were defeated by
(a) Mughals 
(b) Rohillas
(c) Britishers 
(d) Afghans
Ans.(d)

Q15.The treaty of Purandra between Shivaji and Raja Jai Singh took place in
(a) 1665 
(b) 1664
(c) 1666 
(d) 1669
Ans.(a)

Dear Aspirants, at Crackbankexam, we are providing 15 important POLITY QUESTIONS based on previous year. SSC CGL Pre 2017 Exam is scheduled tentatively in the month of AUGUST 2017. SSC repeats many previous years questions. Every day, we provide quizzes on all the topics of General Studies. 

Q1. How many members of the state Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly? 
(a) 2
(b)1
(c)  3
(d) 12

Q2. The Legislative Council in a Sate in India may be created or abolished by the 
(a) President on the recommendation of the Governor 
(b) Parliament 
(c) Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect. 
(d) Governor on a recommendation by the State Cabinet 

Q3. An Ordinary bill passed by the State Assembly can be delayed by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of 
(a) 1 month 
(b) 6 month 
(c) 3 month 
(d) 4 month 

Q4. Which amidst the following State has Legislative Council? 
(a) Bihar 
(b) Orissa 
(c) West Bengal 
(d) Punjab 

Q5. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor? 
(a) Chief Justice of Indian Supreme Court 
(b) Chief Minister 
(c) Speaker of the LokSabha
(d) President 

Q6. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the 
(a) Governor of the State 
(b) Chief Minister of the State 
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly 
(d) Finance Minister of the State

Q7. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the 
(a) Chief Justice of India 
(b) Chief Justice of a High Court 
(c) Governor 
(d) Vice President 

Q8. Who was the first woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following? 
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu 
(b) Mrs. SuchetaKriplani
(c) Mrs. Indira Gandhi 
(d) Mrs. Vijay LaxmiPandit

Q9. The States in India are demanding greater autonomy from the centre in the ________ field. 
(a) Legislative 
(b) Administrative 
(c) Financial 
(d) All the above 

Q10. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to 
(a) the Governor 
(b) the Chief Minister 
(c)the President of India 
(d)the Legislative Assembly 

Q11. What is the duration of membership of State Legislative Councils? 
(a) 3 years 
(b) 5 years 
(c) 6 years 
(d) 9 years

Q12. The Governor of a State has no power to 
(a) prorogue the Assembly 
(b) dissolve the Assembly 
(c)adjourn the Assembly 
(d)summon the Assembly 

Q13. The members of the Legislative Assembly are 
(a) indirectly elected 
(b) directly elected the people 
(c) Partly elected and partly nominated by the Governor 
(d)mainly nominated 

Q14.The Council of Ministers has to resign if no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both the Houses separately
(d) Both the Houses in joint sitting

Q15. The Chief Minister is appointed by
(a) the Governor 
(b) the President 
(c) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court 
(d) The Chief Justice of High Court 

Answer Key

S1. Ans.(b)
S2. Ans.(c)
S3. Ans.(d)
S4. Ans.(a)
S5. Ans.(b)
S6. Ans.(a)
S7. Ans.(c)
S8. Ans.(a)
S9. Ans.(d)
S10. Ans.(d)
S11. Ans.(c)
S12. Ans.(c)
S13. Ans.(b)
S14. Ans.(a)
S15. Ans.(a)

Directions (1-5): For each of the following questions, a part or the whole of the original sentence has been highlighted in bold. You have to find the best way of writing the bold part of the sentence. Option A repeats the bold part, if the bold part is grammatically correct then choose option A.

Q1. Whereas in mammals the tiny tubes that convey nutrients to bone cells are arrayed in parallel lines, in birds the tubes form a random pattern.
(a) Whereas in mammals the tiny tubes that convey nutrients to bone cells are arrayed in parallel lines, in birds the tubes
(b) Whereas the tiny tubes for the conveying of nutrients to bone cells are arrayed in mammals in parallel lines, birds have tubes that
(c) Unlike mammals, where the tiny tubes for conveying nutrients to bone cells are arrayed in parallel lines, birds’ tubes
(d) Unlike mammals, in whom the tiny tubes that convey nutrients to bone cells are arrayed in parallel lines, the tubes in birds
(e) Unlike the tiny tubes that convey nutrients to bone cells, which in mammals are arrayed in parallel lines, in birds the tubes

Q2. Joachim Raff and Giacomo Meyerbeer are examples of the kind of composer who receives popular acclaim while living, often goes into decline after death, and never regains popularity again.
(a) often goes into decline after death, and never regains popularity again
(b) whose reputation declines after death and never regains its status again
(c) but whose reputation declines after death and never regains its former status
(d) who declines in reputation after death and who never regained popularity again 
(e) then has declined in reputation after death and never regained popularity

Q3. In no other historical sighting did Halley’s Comet cause such a worldwide sensation as did its return in 1910-1911.
(a) did its return in 1910-1911.
(b) had its 1910-1911 return
(c) in its return of 1910-1911
(d) its return of 1910-1911 did
(e) its return in 1910-1911

Q4. The company announced that its profits declined much less in the second quarter that analysts had expected it to and its business will improve in the second half of the year.
(a) had expected it to and its business will improve 
(b) had expected and that its business would improve
(c) expected it would and that it will improve its business
(d) expected them to and its business would improve
(e) expected and that it will have improved its business

Q5. Rock samples taken from the remains of an asteroid about twice the size of the 6-mile-wide asteroid that eradicated the dinosaurs has been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus is evidence of the earliest known asteroid impact on Earth.
(a) has been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus is
(b) has been dated at 3.47 billion years old and thus 
(c) have been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus are
(d) have been dated as being 3.47 billion years old and thus
(e) have been dated at 3.47 billion years old and thus are


Directions (6-10): The following questions are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answer the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage.

Q6. It has taken almost two years since the collapse of Lehman Brothers, and more than three years since the beginning of the global recession brought on by the financial sector’s misdeeds for the United States and Europe finally to reform financial regulation. Perhaps we should celebrate the regulatory victories in both Europe and the United States. After all, there is almost universal agreement that the crisis the world is facing today—and is likely to continue to face for years—is a result of the excesses of the deregulation movement begun under Margaret Thatcher and Ronald Reagan 30 years ago. Unfettered markets are neither efficient nor stable. 
Which of the following follows logically from the argument?

(a) Reason triumphs over ideology and interests.
(b) There is an important role for government to play in the economy.
(c) In a severe downturn, monetary policy is likely to be ineffective.
(d) Deregulation is necessary for the market forces to correct themselves.
(e) Margaret Thatcher and Ronald Reagan were failures.

Q7. Stem cell therapy, the most promising treatment is autologous—where patients’ own cells are harvested and re-introduced into their body. Animal studies have indicated that injecting stem cells directly into organs is safe. Positive effects have been shown for the treatment of conditions including heart attacks and urinary incontinence. Many scientists hope stem cell therapy can be used to treat a wide range of diseases. 
Which of the following, if true, belies the hope of the scientists?

(a) There is a wide gap between scientific knowledge and clinical translation for safe and effective stem cell-based therapies.
(b) The only patient who had received autologous treatment suffered tissue damage and died from an infection.
(c) Autologous treatment was found to have led to the development of blood vessel and bone marrow masses at the place of injection.
(d) The scientists hope is based on premature enthusiasm and protocols that are not fully vetted.
(e) None of the above

Q8. Professor Capecchi, Nobel Prize-winning scientist says it could be tougher than first thought to harness the healing power of stem cells in medicine. It had been hoped a single “master” cell could potentially be used to repair all damage in a single organ. Professor Mario Capecchi, from the University of Utah, said that stem cell biology could be “more complicated” than previously thought, which could be bad news for patients hoping for the swift arrival of new stem cell therapies. 
Which of the following, if true, helps best to strengthen the claim of the scientist?

(a) Unlike the majority of cells in the body, stem cells have special qualities.
(b) Stem cells not only reproduce themselves, but can produce a wide variety of the cells.
(c) It was believed that a uniform stem cell population was contained in each organ.
(d) Different stem cells are thought to be working together in the same organ.
(e) Embryonic stem cell research is mired in controversy.

Q9. The brain naturally distorts body image—a finding which could explain eating disorders like anorexia, say experts. People tend to think that their hands are wider and their fingers are shorter than they truly are. The confusion may lie in the way the brain receives information from different parts of the body. Distorted perception may dominate in some people, leading to body image problems. This may be relevant to psychiatric conditions involving body image such as anorexia nervosa, as there may be a general bias towards perceiving the body to be wider than it is.
Which if the following most seriously weakens the above argument?

(a) Dangerously underweight people generally desire to put on more weight.
(b) People tend to judge their hands leaner and legs fatter than actually are.
(c) People have an accurate knowledge of where all parts of the body are in space even when the eyes are closed.
(d) People generally have a conscious and clear visual image of their body parts.
(e) Dangerously overweight people sometimes desire to put on more weight.

Q10. Euro MPs have backed plans for more uniform food labeling in the EU, but they rejected “traffic light” color coding of foods. MEPs opted for Guideline Daily Amounts (GDAs), instead of red warning labels for foods seen as unhealthy because they are high in fat, sugar or salt. Some food producers lobbied intensively against color coding, fearing it would demonize their products. The MEPs’ vote could lead to new food labels in three to five years’ time. “Traffic light” coding is already used by some supermarkets and the idea is backed by the European Consumers’ Organization BEUC. 
Which of the following can be validly concluded form the above?

(a) Shoppers find the system of labeling of foods called “traffic light” color coding useful.
(b) MEPs rejection of the “traffic light” color coding of foods was to favor the food producers lobby.
(c) The rejection of “traffic lights” color coding of foods makes it clear that MEPs won’t stand for people being misled by food packaging.
(d) The new food labels will have key nutritional information about salt, fat and sugar content and GDAs.
(e) More amendments are likely to the legislation on food labeling.


Directions (11-15): Each question below consists of a word, followed by five words or phrases. Choose the word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.Since some of the questions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is best.

Q11. obnoxious
(a) pleasant
(b) friendly
(c) harmonious
(d) caustic
(e) agreeable

Q12. sedulous
(a) diligent
(b) persevering
(c) cursory
(d) trying
(e) seductive

Q13. precocious
(a) intelligent
(b) bright
(c) gifted
(d) talented
(e) nincompoop

Q14. cryptic
(a) enigmatic
(b) evident
(c) puzzling
(d) hidden 
(e) obscure

Q15. evanescent
(a) transient
(b) fleeting
(c) bypass
(d) enduring
(e) fragrant

Solutions

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Idiom; Rhetorical construction; Parallelism
“Whereas” introduces two contrasting situations or events and should be followed by parallel structures. In this sentence, whereas is immediately followed by a clause beginning with the prepositional phrase in mammals; this means that the second part of the sentence must also be a clause that opens with a preposition that functions in the same way – in this case, in birds. This structure clarifies that the things being contrasted are the tubes in mammals and the tubes in birds. In correct versions of the sentence grammatically contrast tubes and birds, mammals and tubes, or birds and mammals.
(a) Correct. Parallel structures make clear that the tubes in mammals are being contrasted with the tubes in birds.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Verb tense; Parallelism
Faulty parallelism in the relative clause who receives … goes … regains … makes it unclear who or what is being describing. The original clause begins by describing a certain kind of composer. As written, with who as the subject of goes and regains, the last two descriptions illogically continue to refer to the kind of composer. Logically it must be the reputation that declines after the composer’s death.
(c) Correct. This sentence presents the proper logic while maintaining parallel structure and consistent verb tense.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Parallelism; Verb form; Logical predication
The single subject of this sentence is Halley’s Comet, and its single verb phrase is did cause. The comparison presented by the sentence is between adverbial phrases describing times when the comet was seen. Grammatically, the items being compared are parallel prepositional phrases beginning with the preposition in: in no other sighting and in its return in 1910-1911. This is the clearest, most economical way of presenting the information. The options that introduce a second verb (did or had) violate that parallelism and introduce a comparison between the comet itself (subject of the verb did cause) and the comet’s return (subject of the verb did or had).
(c) Correct. The parallel prepositional phrases in this sentence correctly compare times when the comet was sighted.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Parallelism, verb tense, antecedent
The original sentence has three problems. The sentence must clarify that the analysts held their expectations before the company’s announcement. That is, it must use the past perfect had expected to show action prior to the past tense of announced. The sentence must also use would rather than will for the company’s uncertain business improvement in the future. Secondly, the use of the singular pronoun it to refer to plural profits is incorrect. Finally, two parallel clauses are needed because the company made two announcements: one about the decline of profits and one about the future of its business.
(b) Correct. Removal of it to avoids the error in grammar and eliminates unnecessary words in this sentence. The addition of that before its business would creates another parallel clause associated with announced and clarifies that there is a second announcement. Finally, this sentence properly uses had expected and would.

S5. Ans.(e)
Sol. Agreement; Idiom
The plural subject of this sentence, Rock samples, requires plural verb phrases – have been dated and are rather than has been dated and is. The idiomatic way of expressing estimation of age is with the phrase dated at.
(e) Correct. The plural verbs match the plural subject, and the wording of the sentence is idiomatic. 

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b). “crisis the world is facing today—and is likely to continue to face for years—is a result of the excesses of the deregulation.” The background to this is the introduction of financial regulations in the America and Europe. Hence it can be concluded that the writer believes that government interference is necessary—as free markets are neither efficient nor stable. Option (b) states just his as the conclusion.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b). We need to find an instance where the hope of the scientists needs to be weakened. The proof of the only patient who received the treatment suffering tissue damage (the injection of stem cells is for the purpose of tissue building) must necessarily dampen the confidence/hope of the scientists—simply, the treatment has produced opposite results—evidence against. In fact, all the options help to belie the hope. But only one option scores are required to rank them. Option (a) is general. Option (c) needs explanation about blood vessel and bone marrow—we cannot make sense of it. Option (d) is also general. Hence option (b) scores.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d). The argument that we have to strengthen is the contrary view held by the Nobel Prize winner to the earlier view that “It had been hoped a single “master’ cell could potentially be used to repair all damage in a single organ. Professor Mario Capecchi, from the University of Utah, said that stem cell biology could be ‘more complicated.’” Reinforcing Mario Capecchi’s view, option (d) attacks the “single master” hypothesis. Other options are irrelevant to this argument.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a). The only option where people seems to have an accurate body image is when people who are thin want to put on weight. Hence option (a) weakens the argument. Options (b) and (e) prove that they have distorted image. Options (c) and (d) are not related to space and visual image (shape) and not related to size. Hence option (a) is the answer.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a). Option (b) is a possibility and not a valid conclusion. Option (c), in effect, is the opposite of option (b), also not a valid conclusion. Similarly, options (d) and (e) too cannot be concluded. The part about supermarkets already using the “traffic lights” system and the backing it enjoys from the consumers point to the fact that consumers find the system useful, hence option (a).

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. obnoxious-extremely unpleasant.
caustic-sarcastic in a scathing and bitter way.
After looking at all the options, we can see option A (pleasant) is the antonym of the given word-obnoxious.

S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. sedulous-(of a person or action) showing dedication and diligence.
cursory-hasty and therefore not thorough or detailed.
Hence, sedulous and cursory are antonyms in meaning.

S13. Ans.(e)
Sol. precocious-(of a child) having developed certain abilities or inclinations at an earlier age than is usual or expected.
nincompoop-a foolish or stupid person.
hence, nincompoop and precocious are antonyms.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. cryptic-having a meaning that is mysterious or obscure.
evident-clearly seen or understood; obvious.
hence, evident and cryptic are antonyms.

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. evanescent-soon passing out of sight, memory, or existence; quickly fading or disappearing.
enduring-lasting over a period of time; durable.
hence, enduring and evanescent are antonyms

Practice with these new pattern reasoning question for SBI PO Mains 2017.
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. They belong to different states, viz Punjab, Kerela, Goa, Sikkim, Manipur, Nagaland, Bihar and Telengna, but not necessarily in the same order. They also like different colours– Red, White and Blue. At least two persons like one colour.
Only D and E like Red and D sits third to the right of E. A is from Manipur and likes White and sits on the immediate right of E. F is from Sikkim and likes Blue. H likes the same colour as G. G is third to the left of F. B sits opposite the person who is from Telengna. C sits exactly opposite the person who belongs to Punjab. The persons who belongs to Nagaland and Goa like White. G is from Telengna. B is from Goa. The persons who like White do not sits adjacent to each other. The one who is from Bihar does not like White or Red. H is not from Nagaland.

Q1. Who among the following is from Kerela?
(a) The one who likes Blue
(b) D
(c) The one who likes White
(d) E
(e) None of these

Q2. Who sits fifth to right of H?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) B
(d) G
(e) A

Q3. E belong to which of the following state?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Kerela
(c) Punjab
(d) Bihar
(e) None of these

Q4. Which of the following combinations is true?
(a) G – White – Telengna 
(b) C – Blue – Kerela 
(c) D – Red – Punjab 
(d) A-Blue- Manipur
(e) None is true

Q5. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) G is from Telengna and likes White.
(b) C is from Nagaland and likes White.
(c) F does not like Blue.
(d) H belongs to Kerela and likes Red.
(e) None of these

Solution(1-5):



S1. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S4. Ans.(e)
Sol.

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol.

Directions (6-10): Study the given information and answer the questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Input: 54 sudden 88 desk 41 required 63 an under 15 92 explain
Step I: 17 54 sudden 88 desk 41 required 63 under 92 explain an
Step II: desk 17 54 sudden 88 required 63 under 92 explain an 43
Step III: 52 desk 17 sudden 88 required 63 under 92 an 43 explain
Step IV: required 52 desk 17 sudden 88 under 92 an 43 explain 65
Step V: 86 required 52 desk 17 under 92 an 43 explain 65 sudden
Step VI: under 86 required 52 desk 17 an 43 explain 65 sudden 90

And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 48 sweet 82 door 35 read 57 a unit 9 86 end

Q6. In which step the elements ‘11 unit 86’ found in the same order?
(a) Step I
(b) Step II
(c) Step III
(d) Step V
(e)Step VI

Q7. In step IV, which of the following words would be at 2nd position to the left of 7th from the right end?
(a) 11 
(b) sweet 
(c) 82 
(d) unit 
(e) 86

Q8. How many step required completing the above arrangement?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Six
(d) Seven
(e) Five

Q9. Which of the following would be the step III after arrangement?
(a) 16 door 11 sweet 82 read 57 unit 86 a 37 end
(b) 6 door 11 sweet 80 read 57 unit 86 a 37 end
(c) 6 door 15 sweet 82 read 57 unit 86 a 37 end
(d) 46 door 11 sweet 82 read 57 unit 86 a 37 end
(e) None of these

Q10. In step VI, ‘80’ is related to ‘unit’ and ‘11’ is related to ‘door’. In the same way ‘59’ is related to?
(a) end
(b) unit
(c) read 
(d) sweet
(e) None of these

Solution (6-10):
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see the each step, then we can find that there is both number and words are arranged in each step.
1) For words arrangement- Words are arranged according to ascending order given in English dictionary. In first step the words which comes first according to English dictionary arranged first to extreme right. And in second step next word  are arranged to extreme left.
And this process is continued in further step.
2) For number arrangement- Number are arranged according to ascending order. In first step lowest number arranged in extreme left. And in second step next number is arranged in extreme right. And this process is continued in further step( Each odd number is added by two(+2) while they are arranged and two is subtracted by each even number(-2) while they are arranged).

   Input:  48 sweet 82 door 35 read 57 a unit 9 86 end
     Step I:  11 48 sweet 82 door 35 read 57 unit 86 end a
    Step II: door 11 48 sweet 82 read 57 unit 86 end a 37
  Step III: 46 door 11 sweet 82 read 57 unit 86 a 37 end
  Step IV: read 46 door 11 sweet 82 unit 86 a 37 end 59
    Step V: 80 read 46 door 11 unit 86 a 37 end 59 sweet
  Step VI: unit 80 read 46 door 11 a 37 end 59 sweet 84

S6. Ans. (d)
Sol. 

S7. Ans. (a)
Sol. 

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. 

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. 
 
S10. Ans. (a)
Sol. 

Directions (11-15): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) if the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

Q11. How is D related to G ?
I. F is mother of D and G is the mother-in-law of F.
II. D is the son of E and E is the son of G.

S11. Ans. (b)
Sol. D is grandson of G.


Q12. What is the code for ‘who’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘who is she’ is written as ‘ka ma te’ and ‘she is good’ is written as ‘te ka ro’.
II. In the code language ‘who are you going’ is written as ‘la ma pa je’ and ‘who is the girl’ is written as ‘ch fa ma te’.


S12. Ans. (c)
Sol. Who= ma

Q13.Point R is towards which direction of Point M?
I. Point M is to the west of Point T, which is of the south of Point R.
II. Point M is to the South of Point B, which is to the West of Point R.

S13. Ans. (c)
Sol. R is northeast of point M.
 


Q14. Among M, N, D, P and K, who earns more than only the least earner among them?
I. N earns more than M and P but less than only D.
II. M earns more than P who earns less than K.

S14. Ans. (d)
Sol.


Q15. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing North?
I. A does not sit next to D, who does not sit next on the extreme right.
II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while only one person sits between C and B.

S15. Ans. (b)
Sol. C seated next to A.
 


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