Monday, 19 June 2017

Dear Aspirants,

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts recruitment drive for Probationary Officers/ Scale-I Officers and Office Assistants/ Clerical Cadre once a year. IBPS has released its calendar for the year 2017, according to which it is expected that the official notification for IBPS RRB Recruitment 2017 will be out tentatively in July’17.

The calendar for CWE for PSBs and RRBs states the following tentative dates for recruitment examinations for the year 2017-18 in Public Sector Banks and Regional Rural Banks.


IBPS POPrelims
7th, 8th, 14th & 15th October’17
Mains26th November’17
IBPS
Clerk
Prelims2nd, 3rd, 9th & 10th December’17
Mains21st January 2018
IBPS RRB Officer Scale-IPrelims9th, 10th, 16th, 17th, 23rd, & 24th
September’17
Mains5th November’17
IBPS RRB Office AssistantPrelims9th, 10th, 16th, 17th, 23rd, & 24th
September’17
Mains12th November’17


IBPS RRB EXAM PATTERN


To start a promising career in govt. banking sector IBPS recruitment is a brilliant opportunity for all aspirants. You can enter banking sector through Officer Scale recruitment of Clerical/Assistant recruitment. In both the recruitments of Clerk and Officers there are two phases on online object test- the Preliminary exam and the Mains exam for both PSBs and RRBs.

The Prelims or Preliminary exam is usually of easier level as compared to the mains exam. To crack these exams it is essential that you are skilled in the art of time and topic 
management, which you’ll acquire through rigorous practice in the right mode.

Officers’ Recruitment Exam Pattern 

Officers’ Recruitment takes place in the following 3 phases:
Phase-I : Preliminary Online Objective Test
Phase-II : Mains Test
Phase-III: Personal Interview


Office Assistant Recruitment Exam Pattern

Office Assistant’s Recruitment takes place in the following 3 phases:
Phase-I : Preliminary Online Objective Test
Phase-II : Mains Test
Phase-III: Regional Language Proficiency Test (Qualifying in nature)

Here the Preliminary Test is the qualifying test for this recruitment where the candidate has to clear the sectional cut offs and the complete cut off to get to appear in the Mains examination. The marks obtained by a candidate in the Mains exam and Personal Interview are accounted for the merit list. Each objective test of Prelims and Mains also have a negative marking of 1/4th marks of the weightage of the question, for each wrong answer. 

In 2016 IBPS removed the English Section from the Preliminary exam of IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I and Office Assistant. This is a major plus point for the candidates who are not fluent in English Language and following is exam pattern of online objective examination.


Preliminary Exam
Sr No.Name of the testMedium of ExamNo. of questionsMaximum MarksDuration
1.ReasoningHindi/English4040Composite time of 45 minutes
2.Numerical AbilityHindi/English4040
Total8080


Mains Exam

S. No.Name of the TestMedium of the examNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksDuration
1.Reasoning AbilityHindi/English4050Composite time of 120 minutes
2.Numerical AbilityHindi/English4050
3.General AwarenessHindi/English4040
4.aEnglish LanguageEnglish4040
4.bHindi LanguageHindi4040
5.Computer KnowledgeHindi/English4020
Total200200

IBPS RRB CUT OFF


IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I Prelims exam 2016 was very easy compared to all other exams of last year and thus, its cut off was also very high, possibly the highest one in 2016. The Mains examination was of moderate level and to the surprise of many, candidates who opted for English Language scored more marks in the language section as compared to those who opted for Hindi Language as Hindi Language’s test was tougher than English. The highest final cut off was of Rajasthan – 66.20 (out of 100) and the lowest was in Karnataka-49.92

Whereas the IBPS RRB Office Assistant Mains examination was of moderate level and the highest cut off was for Punjab-69.69 (out of 100) and the lowest cut off was for Mizoram-50.03

The final cut off of IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I for some other states was:
Uttar Pradesh-59.95, West Bengal-57.70, Uttarakhand-60.60, Andhra Pradesh-56.08, and Tamil Nadu- 57.15

The final cut off of IBPS RRB Office Assistant for some other states was:
Uttar Pradesh-65.85, West Bengal-64.78, Uttarakhand-66.16, Andhra Pradesh-63.75, and Tamil Nadu- 63.94

You can get to know about cut off of all other states for RRB Office Assistant and RRB Officer Scale-I recruitment 2016 on www.bankersadda.com and the cut off mentioned here are of general or unreserved category.

IBPS RRB SYLLABUS


The exam syllabus for online objective tests- Prelims and Mains of IBPS RRB Office Assistant and IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I is same as that of any other banking recruitment exam. The syllabus for Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude for Prelims and Mains is also same, just the difference is in the difficulty level of questions asked in Prelims and Mains. Usually Prelims exam is easy and this also accounts for higher number of attempts on an average by candidates appearing for the exam which results in high cut off for Prelims. On the contrary Mains examinations tend to bring surprises, Mains exam may include new pattern questions and conventional questions of a higher difficulty level. Last year’s Mains exam for both the recruitments- RRB Officer Scale-I and RRB Office Assistant was of moderate level. 

Following is the section-wise syllabus (important topics) for IBPS RRB Exam: 

English Language
Reading Comprehension, Cloze Test, Fillers, Sentence Errors, Vocabulary based questions, Sentence Improvement, Jumbled Paragraph, Paragraph Based Questions (Paragraph Fillers, Paragraph Conclusion, Paragraph /Sentences Restatement, Paragraph Inference)

Hindi Language
Reading Comprehension, Cloze Test, Fillers, Errors, Jumbled Paragraph, Odd one out, Paragraph based questions.

Reasoning Ability
Puzzles, Seating Arrangements, Direction Sense, Blood Relation, Syllogism, Order and Ranking, Coding-Decoding, Machine Input-Output, Inequalities, Alpha-Numeric-Symbol Series, Data Sufficiency, Logical Reasoning (Passage Inference, Statement and Assumption, Conclusion, Argument)

Numerical Ability
Data Interpretation (Bar Graph, Line Chart, Tabular, Caselet, Radar/Web, Pie Chart), Inequalities (Quadratic Equations), Number Series, Approximation and Simplification, Data Sufficiency, Miscellaneous Arithmetic Problems (HCF and LCM, Profit and Loss, SI & CI, Problem on Ages, Work and Time, Speed Distance and Time, Probability, Mensuration, Permutation and Combination, Average, Ratio and Proportion, Partnership, Problems on Boats and Stream, Problems on Trains, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns)

General Awareness
Banking and Insurance Awareness, Financial Awareness, Govt. Schemes and Policies, Current Affairs, Static Awareness

Computer Knowledge
History and Generation of Computers, Introduction to Computer Organisation, Computer Memory, Computer Hardware and I/O Devices, Computer Software, Computer Languages, Operating System, Computer Network, Internet, MS Office Suit and Short cut keys, Basics of DBMS, Number System and Conversions, Computer and Network Security

Saturday, 17 June 2017


Dear Aspirants, The Most awaited RBI Grade-B 2017 Phase-1 exam is over, Now it's time for exam analysis of RBI Grade-B 2017 Phase-1 (17th June 2017), Shift-2. A lot of students have appeared for their mains exam today and this brings them to a step closer in their journey of getting a Job in Banking Sector. Without wasting any moment, let's get straight to the analysis For which you are all waiting for. The overall exam was moderate to difficult. 

There are 4 Sections in RBI Grade-B 2017 Phase-1 exam namely English, Reasoning, General Awareness and Quantitative Aptitude.


RBI GRADE-B 2017 PHASE-1 EXAM ANALYSIS (OVER-ALL):

SECTIONSGOOD ATTEMPTS
ENGLISH LANGUAGE10-12
REASONING ABILITY31-34
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE9-11
GENERAL AWARENESS38-41
TOTAL87-94


QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Difficult)

The level of quantitative aptitude was difficult. There were three sets of DI one form Line Graph (With Missing DI) another one based on double pie chart and the third one was caselet DI.

The questions were:

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Inequalities (New Pattern)5Difficult
Data Interpretation (Double Pie Chart and Line graph with missing DI)15Difficult
Miscellaneous(SI,CI, Speed &Time, Profit and Loss, Time and Work, Averages, Ages, Ratio etc.)10Difficult
Total30Difficult

ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Difficult)

The level of English was Difficult. There were two set of RC in which one was based on new pattern(that came in SBI PO mains) and another one was based on old pattern.

Topics of Reading Comprehension:
  • Valuation of currency (USD)
  • European Central Bank. 

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Reading Comprehension 12Moderate-Difficult
Double fillers5Moderate
Idioms and Phrases 3Difficult
Sentence Correction 5Difficult
Total30Difficult

REASONING ABILITY (
Moderate-Difficult)

The level of reasoning was moderate - Difficult. There were 4 puzzles and sitting Arrangement based on following pattern:-

  • Linear North- South 
  • Students and class (Odd Even)
  • Month based Puzzle
  • Floor based Puzzle with salary.

The questions were:

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Data Sufficiency5Moderate
Input - Output6Difficult
Logical Reasoning11Moderate
Blood Relation3Moderate
Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles (Linear, Circular, and Floor)20Moderate-Difficult
Inequality5Moderate
Syllogism7Moderate
 Direction3Moderate
Total60Moderate

GENERAL AWARENESS (Moderate)

General Awareness had 80 questions for 80 marks. This section is moderate for those who knows banking terms. Most of the current affairs questions were asked from Our GK POWER Capsule. Our Capsule is the first and last resource to all banking aspirants in India. The questions were mainly asked from banking and  recently Current affairs (May and June). No questions were asked from budget and economy survey. Some questions were from static.


Dear Aspirants, SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam is near, now you need to pace up your studies. In GA Section, generally, 5 to 6 questions are asked from HISTORY PORTION. So we are providing 15 previous year questions everyday. these questions will help in improving your GENERAL AWARENESS portion.

Q1. In which of the following years, 26th January was celebrated as an independence day? 
(a) 1930
(b) 1929
(c) 1942
(d) 1946
S1. Ans.(a)

Q2. Satyagraha finds expression in 

(a) Sudden outbursts of violence
(b) Armed conflicts
(c) Non-cooperation
(d) Communal riots
S2. Ans.(c)

Q3. Who started the first English newspaper in India? 

(a) BalGangadharTilak
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) J.A. Hickey
(d) Lord William Bentinck
S3. Ans.(c)

Q4. The former princely state Nahan is part of which State now? 

(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Himachal Pradesh
S4. Ans.(d)

Q5. Who was the first Indian to be made a fellow of the Royal Society of London? 
(a) SrinivasRamanujam
(b) A.C. Wadia
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) none of these
S5. Ans.(b)

Q6. The founder of the ‘Brahmo Samaj’ was

(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Vivekananda
S6. Ans.(c)

Q7. When was the first passenger train run in India? 

(a) January 1848
(b) April 1853
(c) May 1857
(d) April 1852
S7. Ans.(b)

Q8. Who among the following controlled maximum trade in the western coastal region during 17th century? 

(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) The house of Jagat Seth
(d) Mulla Abdul Gaffar
S8. Ans.(a)

Q9. During colonial period, British capital was mainly invested in :

(a) Infra structure
(b) Industry
(c) Agriculture
(d) Services
S9. Ans.(c)


Q10. The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ was first applied to the Princely State of
(a) Satara
(b) Jhansi
(c) Oudh
(d) Jaunpur
S10. Ans.(a)
Q11. What did the Hunter Commission appointed by the Viceroy probe? 
(a) BardoliSatayagraha
(b) Khilafat Agitation
(c) Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
(d) ChauriChaura incident
S11. Ans.(c)

Q12. From where did AcharyaVinobaBhave start the Individual Satyagraha in 1940? 

(a) Nadiad in Gujarat
(b) Pavnar in Maharashtra
(c) Adyar in Tamil Nadu
(d) Guntur in Andhra Pradesh
S12. Ans.(b)

Q13. The father of extremist movement in India is :

(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) BalGangadharTilak
S13. Ans.(d)

Q14. Mahatma Gandhi got his inspiration for Civil Disobedience from: 

(a) Tuoreau
(b) Ruskin
(c) Confucius
(d) Tolstoy
S14. Ans.(a)

Q15. What was the ultimate goal of Mahatma Gandhi’s Salt Satyagraha? 

(a) repeal of Salt Law
(b) curtailment of the Government’s power
(c) economic relief to the common people
(d) ‘PurnaSwaraj’ for India
S15. Ans.(a)

Dear SSC aspirants, 6 to 8 questions are asked from Polity in SSC CGL. But to read such a large portion within short time is assiduous. so we provide 15 targeted POLITY questions everyday. This will help you score good in SSC CGL Tier-I 2017. 

Q1. The Members and Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission, are appointed by the: 
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Prime Minister of India
S1. Ans.(a)

Q2. Who of the following enjoy constitutional position? 

(A) Finance Commission 
(B) National Development Council 
(C) Election Commission 
(D) Planning Commission 
(a) A, C
(b) A, B
(c) B, D
(d) B, C
S2. Ans.(a)

Q3. Which of the following is one of the characteristics of civil services in India? 

(a) Neutrality and Impartiality
(b) Partisan
(c) Temporary Political Executive nexus
(d) All of the above
S3. Ans.(a)


Q4. Which of the following high dignitaries, who are not members of Parliament, has the right to address it? 
(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Solicitor General of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner of India
S4. Ans.(b)

Q5. Bureaucracy literally means a system of government by ________. 

(a) Elected representative
(b) Nominated representative
(c) Officials
(d) Group of landlords
S5. Ans.(c)

Q6. Union Public Service Commission has to submit the report to the 

(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) LokSabha
(d) RajyaSabha
S6. Ans.(a)

Q7. Which was the first state to go to polls under the Delimitation? 

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
S7. Ans.(d)

Q8. Postal voting is otherwise called: 

(a) plural voting
(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting
(d) secret voting
S8. Ans.(b)

Q9. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises Municipal elections under 
(a) Article 240 (1)
(b) Article 241 (2)
(c) Article 243 (K)
(d) Article 245 (D)
S9. Ans.(c)

Q10. Total assembly segments in Delhi are: 

(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 40
S10. Ans.(c)

Q11. Right to vote is mentioned in the parts of the Constitution relating to 

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Union Legislature
(c) State Legislature
(d) Election 
S11. Ans.(d)

Q12. The members of the Legislative Assembly are 
(a) indirectly elected
(b) directly elected by the people
(c) partly elected and partly nominated by the Governor
(d) mainly nominated
S12. Ans.(b)

Q13. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State? 

(a) Solicitor General
(b) Secretary General, Law Department
(c) Attorney General
(d) Advocate General
S13. Ans.(d)

Q14. The maximum time a person can continue to be the minister of the State Government without being a member the state legislature ________. 

(a) One year
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) No time limit
S14. Ans.(c)

Q15. The upper house of the State Legislature in India is called: 

(a) Legislative Council
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Executive Council
(d) Governor-in-Council
S15. Ans.(a)

Dear Aspirants, The Most awaited RBI Grade-B 2017 Phase-1 exam is over, Now it's time for exam analysis of RBI Grade-B 2017 Phase-1 (17th June 2017). A lot of students have appeared for their mains exam today and this brings them to a step closer in their journey of getting a Job in Banking Sector. Without wasting any moment, let's get straight to the analysis For which you are all waiting for. The overall exam was moderate to difficult. 

There are 4 Sections in RBI Grade-B 2017 Phase-1 exam namely English, Reasoning, General Awareness and Quantitative Aptitude.



RBI GRADE-B 2017 PHASE-1 EXAM ANALYSIS (OVER-ALL):

SECTIONSGOOD ATTEMPTS
ENGLISH LANGUAGE11-13
REASONING ABILITY33-36
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE9-12
GENERAL AWARENESS39-43
TOTAL89-97


QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Difficult)

The level of quantitative aptitude was difficult. There were three sets of DI one form time and work another one based on double pie chart and the third one was based on water and tank

The questions were:

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Inequalities (New Pattern)5Difficult
Data Interpretation (Tabular and Bar graph)15Difficult
Miscellaneous(SI,CI, Speed &Time, Profit and Loss, Time and Work, Averages, Ages, Ratio etc.)10Difficult
Total30Difficult

ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Difficult)

The level of English was Difficult. There were two set of RC in which one was based on new pattern(that came in SBI PO mains) and another one was based on old pattern.

Topics of Reading Comprehension:
  • Banking System in Britain.
  • European countries and their currencies(Euro) 

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Reading Comprehension 12Moderate-Difficult
Double fillers5Moderate
Idioms and Phrases 3Difficult
Sentence Correction 5Difficult
Total30Difficult

REASONING ABILITY (
Moderate-Difficult)

The level of reasoning was moderate - Difficult. There were 4 puzzles and sitting Arrangement based on following pattern:-

  • Linear North- South 
  • Students and class (Odd Even)
  • Month based Puzzle
  • Floor based Puzzle with salary.

The questions were:

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Data Sufficiency5Moderate
Input - Output6Difficult
Logical Reasoning11Moderate
Blood Relation3Moderate
Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles (Linear, Circular, and Floor)20Moderate-Difficult
Inequality5Moderate
Syllogism7Moderate
 Direction3Moderate
Total60Moderate

GENERAL AWARENESS (Moderate)

General Awareness had 80 questions for 80 marks. This section is moderate for those who knows banking terms. Most of the current affairs questions were asked from Our GK POWER Capsule. Our Capsule is the first and last resource to all banking aspirants in India. The questions were mainly asked from banking and  recently Current affairs (May and June). No questions were asked from budget and economy survey. Some questions were from static.


It is true and it might seem as the greatest of the challenge after English Section’s surprises but yet this one can easily be dealt with. You just need correct practice and hardwire your brain to quickly make decisions of what to attempt and what to leave. Practice with these new pattern reasoning question for NICL AO Mains Exam.
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Five friends G, H, I, J and K of one colony A are playing chess with five other friends namely U, V, W, X and Y of the another colony B. Each friend of colony A has a different profession viz. Doctor, Engineer, Businessman, Lawyer and Manager but not necessarily in the same order .Each friend of colony B has also a different profession viz; Fashion designer, Choreographer, Interior Decorator, Politician and Teacher. Among friends, there are only three females – the one who is playing with W, the one whose profession is Doctor and the one who is playing with the person who is a Politician. The female whose profession is Engineer is playing with the person who is Interior Decorator.
The Person who is a Choreographer is playing with the person whose profession is Doctor .X is neither a Choreographer nor a Fashion designer. Y is not an Interior Decorator. The person who is playing with Y is a female but she is not J. K’s profession is Engineer and is not a male. G and I are not females. G’s profession is Manager and is playing neither with Y nor with the Choreographer. H’s profession is Lawyer. V is a Fashion designer and he is not playing with G. The one who is a Fashion designer is not playing with J who is a doctor.

Q1. The one whose profession is Businessman is playing with who among the following person?
(a)W
(b)Choreographer
(c)Y
(d)Fashion designer
(e)None of these

Q2. Which of the following pairs correctly represents the pair of friends who are playing together?
(a)IW
(b)GX
(c)JY
(d)WH
(e)None of these

Q3. Who among the following is a Politician?
(a)Y
(b)X
(c)W
(d)U
(e)None of these

Q4. Which of the following represents the group of persons having female friend who are playing with him?
(a)Y, W,U
(b)X, V, W
(c)R, P, T
(d)Y ,X, V
(e)None of these

Q5. Which of the following is the specialization of X?
(a)Teacher
(b)Politician
(c)Interior Decorator
(d)Fashion designer
(e)None of these

Solution(1-5):

S1.Ans.(d)
Sol.

S2.Ans.(b)
Sol.

S3.Ans.(a)
Sol.

S4.Ans.(a)
Sol.

S5.Ans.(a)
Sol.

Direction (6-7): Read the following passage and answer the given questions according to the passage:
The Maharashtra government’s decision to promulgate an ordinance to exempt farmers from having to mandatorily sell their fruit and vegetable crop at mandis governed by a 1963 law on marketing farm produce is a bold and laudable step. Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis has stood his ground against the powerful lobby of middlemen, who shut shop in protest, is even more commendable. The problem with the present regime, under which product has to be sold through Agricultural Produce Market Committees, is that farmers seldom benefit from price movements; traders rake in the upside that consumers are forced to shell out.

Q6. Which of the following can be concluded from the given passage?
(i) This will encourage the farmers to grow more crops.
(ii) Similar steps will be implemented in other states.
(iii) Now, the farmers will definitely get a good price for their hard work.
(a) All except (i)
(b) All of the above
(c) All except (ii)
(d) Only (i)
(e) None of the above

S6. Ans.(c) 
Sol. The government’s decision will definitely encourage the farmers to grow more crops as they can sell their fruit and vegetable crops directly to customers. It cannot be concluded that if it is implemented in Maharashtra, it will be implemented in other states too. and if there will be direct interaction of farmer with customer irrespective of middleman price ,obviously, farmers will get good price for their product as compare to the price they were getting in the past.

Q7. What are the feasible problems of the farmers which can be observed from the passage?
(i) Money for their product is never given on the spot.
(ii) The values of product are decided by the “buyers” who are usually middleman, even if government system is involved.
(iii) The inputs are under the clutches of Multinational Corporations.
(a) All of the above
(b) All except (iii)
(c) All except (ii)
(d) All except (i)
(e) None of the above

S7. Ans.(b) 
Sol. It is mention in the passage that farmers seldom benefitted from price movements and it is also given that the Chief Minister is against the powerful lobby of middleman. So, (i) and (ii) are the feasible problems of the farmers. Whereas we can’t say anything about its clutching power.

Q8. "It was AC Milan's success in Europe in the sixties that introduced the 'libero' as the Italian default and, a quarter of a century later, it was AC Milan's success in Europe that killed it off."
Which of the following was not implied in the above sentence?
(a) AC Milan was successful in Europe in the sixties with the help of a 'libero'
(b)AC Milan was successful in Europe in the late eighties without a'Iibero'
(c)The ‘Iibero’ was an Italian default for almost a quarter of a century.
(d)AC Milan was not successful in Europe for almost a quarter of a century.
(e)The Italians seldom used a 'libero' since late eighties.

S8. Ans.(d)  
Sol. Options (b), (c), and (e) are implied in the given sentence. Option(a) can somewhat be interpreted from the sentence, that AC Milan was successful in the sixties, though the usage of ‘help’ makes this option debatable. The second part of the sentence indicates that a quarter of a century(25 years) later than the sixties, which comes out to be in the eighties (as mentioned in option(b)) AC Milan was successful even though the libero was killed off. Option (c) is easily interpreted from the sentence that the libero was introduced in t`` he sixties as the Italian default and it remained so for another quarter of a century before getting killed off. Since the libero was killed in the eighties, the Italians seldom used it since late eighties. So, option (e) is implied as well. The sentence says that AC Milan was successful along with the libero and later without a libero too, but it never says he wasn’t successful himself during those twenty five years. Thus, option (d)  is not implied and is clearly a better choice over option (a).

Q9. The 2001 census showed a sharp fall in the literacy rate compared to 1991, but an increase in the literacy rate by 2006 suggests that between 1991 and 2006 lndia progressed in terms of literacy rate.
Which of the following statements, if true, best refutes the above argument? 
(a)One of the causes of more literacy is the increased population growth rate.
(b)Although there was no census in 2006 the information about the literacy rate is reliable.
(c)Many of those who were illiterate in 2001 became literate by 2006.
(d)The rate of fall in literacy rate between 1991 and 2001 was more than the rate of rise in literacy rate between 2001 and 2006.
(e)The rise in literacy rate between 2001 and 2006 was due to persistent campaign on television and FM radio.

S9. Ans.(d) 
Sol.  The argument states that the literacy rate fell between1991 and 2001 and rose again in the period 2001-2006 concluding that India progressed in terms of literacy rate. It says that the drop in the rate from 1991 to 2001 was greater than the rise in the period 2001 2006 which does not indicate progress from 1991 to 2006 since there is a net fall in the literacy rate during this period. Thus, option (d) refutes the conclusion drawn in the argument.

Q10. Most of the Asian countries have trade-deficit with China. Bangladesh's trade deficit with China this year has increased by 35%. Despite large increases in exports to China, Indonesia's trade deficit with China continues to increase. So does that of South Korea, home of Samsung Electronics, one of the world's largest manufacturers of electronic gadgets. 
Which of the following, if true, would be most inconsistent with the above passage?
(a) China is the largest manufacturer of parts of electronic gadgets and Samsung Electronics imports parts for their gadgets from China.
(b)Exports to Bangladesh are insignificant in proportion of China's total exports.
(c)Exports to Indonesia from China decreased.
(d)Indonesia's chief exports are natural resources.
(e)China has trade deficit with Iran.

S10. Ans.(c) 
Sol. Trade deficit means the negative balance of trade in which a country’s imports exceed its exports. Option C is inconsistent because had the exports from China to Indonesia decreased, Indonesia’s trade deficit would not have increased.

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

INPUT : Study 30 World Ugly 41 52 Zest 61 Xiomi 36 89 Very
STEP 1 : Study Ugly 30 World 41 52 Zest 61 Xiomi 36 89 Very
STEP 2 : Study Ugly 89 61 30 World 41 52 Zest Xiomi 36 Very
STEP 3 : Study Ugly 89 61 Very World 30 41 52 Zest Xiomi 36
STEP 4 : Study Ugly 89 61 Very World 52 41 30 Zest Xiomi 36
STEP 5 : Study Ugly 89 61 Very World 52 41 Xiomi Zest 30 36
STEP 6 : Study Ugly 89 61 Very World 52 41 Xiomi Zest 36 30
and step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.
Input: Orio 11 Mild 25 Pint 47 81 Pick 49 Vintage 16 Neuro

Q11. Which of the following term exactly comes between 49 and Pick in step 3 ?
(a) Pint
(b) 11
(c) Vintage
(d) Orio
(e) None of these

Q12. How many elements are there between 25 and 16 in step 5 ?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Five
(e) None of these

Q13. In step 6, Pick and Pint, 11 and 49 are interchanged then how many/much will be placed between 49 and Pick?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
(e) None of these

Q14. What is the position of 25 in step 4 from the right end?
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Fifth
(e) None of these

Q15. Which of the following will be the final step of the given input ?
(a) Mild Neuro 16 11 Orio Pick 25 47 Pint Vintage 49 81
(b) Pint Neuro 49 81 Pick Orio 47 25 Mild Vintage 16 11
(c) Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio Pick 25 47 Pint Vintage 11 16
(d) Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio Pick 47 25 Pint Vintage 16 11
(e) None of these

Solution (11-15):
Logic: In step 1 two words picked and arranged in increasing alphabetical order, placed it at the left corner and in step 2 , two numbers picked and arranged it in descending order next to words and so on.
STEP 1 : Mild Neuro Orio 11 25 Pint 47 81 Pick 49 Vintage 16
STEP 2 : Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio 11 25 Pint 47 Pick Vintage 16
STEP 3 : Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio Pick 11 25 Pint 47 Vintage 16
STEP 4 : Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio Pick 47 25 11 Pint Vintage 16
STEP 5 : Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio Pick 47 25 Pint Vintage 11 16
STEP 6 : Mild Neuro 81 49 Orio Pick 47 25 Pint Vintage 16 11

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. 

S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. 
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. 

Friday, 16 June 2017


Dear Aspirants, English Section is a topic quite dreaded by candidates taking the bank exams. Though the sheer number of concepts and rules may seem intimidating at first, with discipline and the right approach, it is not difficult to master these concepts and their application to questions. Through such quizzes, we will provide you all types of high-level questions to ace the Sentence Correction section of bank exams. In this quiz, you can practice Reading Comprehension and Fill in the blanks questions for RBI Grade B Exam 2017.

Directions (1-15): In each of the following questions, five statements are given. Four of them are related in some way. Identify the ‘odd one’ and mark its number as your answer.

Q1. 
(a) Soft drink concentrates are always preferred by children.
(b) Apart from quenching thirst, coconut water is also good for health.
(c) Some people say that Limca is an ideal thirst quencher.
(d) Coke and Pepsi are carbonated drinks.
(e) Thums-up is banned in some parts of India.

Q2. 
(a) Dushera is celebrated with a lot of fervor particularly in Bengal.
(b) People, irrespective of their age rejoice on Diwali.
(c) Valentine’s Day is celebrated by youth.
(d) Sankranthi is considered to be a harvest festival.
(e) Holi is a festival of colours.

Q3. 
(a) Mars is a planet on which scientists say life is possible.
(b) Earth derives its natural light from the sun.
(c) Jupiter is the largest planet of the solar system.
(d) The planet nearest to earth is Venus.
(e) A rainbow is one of the beautiful sights.

Q4. 
(a) Astronomy is one of the ancient sciences known to man.
(b) Paleontology is the study of life in the geological past.
(c) Archeology and History are allied subjects.
(d) Moon is a satellite of the earth.
(e) Psychology is the scientific study of human behaviour.

Q5. 
(a) Shakespeare was a famous exponent of the sonnet.
(b) Paradise lost is one of the most famous epics in English literature.
(c) An ode is written in an elevated style.
(d) Practical criticism is sometimes distinguished into impressionistic criticism.
(e) William Wordsworth is a nature poet.

Q6. 
(a) Goddess Saraswati loves playing on the Veena.
(b) Lord Krishna enchanted Gopikas with his Flute.
(c) Bill Gates loves to be with Computer.
(d) Sage Narada always carries Tanpura.
(e) Ravana is known to be an expert player of Rudhraveena.

Q7. 
(a) Gandhiji’s autobiography is ‘My experiments with Truth’.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru’s patriotism is seen in ‘Discovery of India’.
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai’s unhappiness over conditions in pre-independent India is seen in his book ‘Unhappy India’.
(d) Hitler’s ‘Mein-Kamph’ was looked upon as a bible by the Nazis.
(e) Shakespeare is the most famous playwright of English literature.

Q8. 
(a) Ujjain, a holy place has the Mahakaleshwar Temple.
(b) The Kanha National Park is the biggest one in the state.
(c) The Buddhist stupa of Sanchi reveals the spread of Buddhism.
(d) Cave temples and Kailashnath temple at Ellora are famous for their caves and paintings. 
(e) To many, Tirupathi, is not only a holy place but also a tourist place of attraction.

Q9. 
(a) I have nothing to offer but blood, sweat and tears, said Winston Churchill.
(b) I know nothing but the fact of my ignorance, said Socrates.
(c) A single step for man, a giant leap for mankind opined Neil Armstrong.
(d) Just as I would not like to be a slave, so I would not like to be a master said Abraham Lincoln.
(e) Martin Luther King Jr. said that Americans will overcome oppression and will establish the rule of justice.

Q10. 
(a) Vande Mataram was the source of inspiration to the people in their struggle for freedom.
(b) The Sarnath Lion of Asoka is preserved in the Sarnath Museum.
(c) Rabindranath Tagore’s ‘Jana gana mana’ was adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India.
(d) The Indian calendar is based on Saka era with Chaitra as the first month and a normal year of 365 days.
(e) Like the tower of Pisa even Kutub-Minar is leaning say experts.

Q11. 
(a) Paddy and coconut are the food and cash crops of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli has no major or medium irrigation power projects.
(c) In UP sugar cane is a major cash crop.
(d) Coconut is the only major crop of Lakshadweep.
(e) Hindi, Punjabi and Urdu are the principal languages of Delhi.

Q12. 
(a) Washington D.C is the capital of United States of America.
(b) Zimbabwe’s main centre of business is in Harare.
(c) Lusaka is the capital of Zambia.
(d) Zaire has Kinshasa as its capital.
(e) Cairo is the capital of Egypt and is a main business centre.

Q13. 
(a) My daughter wants to travel by flight.
(b) My son wants to drive a car.
(c) My niece enjoys riding her tricycle.
(d) I went to Vijayawada by train.
(e) I hate to travel by a bus.

Q14. 
(a) My aunt prefers to have a plate of fried rice.
(b) My father brought a bag of Basmati rice.
(c) My cook prepared pepper rice for breakfast.
(d) Small children are generally given rice and curds.
(e) We ate sticky rice in the Thailand restaurant and relished it.

Q15. 
(a) Some people enjoy watching cricket.
(b) Others take pride in playing chess.
(c) I love to play football.
(d) My friend struggled hard to get selected in the hockey team.
(e) Children love to play outdoor games.

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Coconut water is a natural drink while the others are artificial soft drinks.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Valentine day is not native to India while the others are native Indian festivals.

S3. Ans.(e)
Sol. A rainbow is an occurrence in nature. Earth, Jupiter and Venus and moon are planets.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. Moon is a satellite while the others are different branches of study.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. (D) is about criticism while the other four are about creative writings in literature.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. A computer is a machine while Veena, Flute and Tanpura are musical instruments.

S7. Ans.(e)
Sol. While the first four are about authors and their books, (E) is only about an author not his book.

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Kanha National Park is natural while the others are man made.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Neil Armstrong is contemporary while the others belong to the past.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Sarnath Lion of Asoka is a material thing unlike the others.

S11. Ans.(e)
Sol. While the others are related to agriculture, (E) alone is about languages.

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option A is about America while the others are places in Africa.

S13. Ans.(d)
Sol. All other choices are preferences.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. While all are about rice (B) alone is about raw rice, the others are about cooked rice.

S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Choice (A) is about watching a game while the others are about playing games.

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