Quantitative Aptitude Questions for RBI Grade-B Phase-1 Exam

Practice is the key to perfection in Quant, so brush up your skills and test yourself with these 15 questions of Quantitative Aptitude for RBI Grade-B 2017.

Directions (Q.1-5): In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

Q1. 336, 210, 120, 62, 24, 6, 0 

(a) 120 

(b) 62

(c) 24

(d) 6

(e) None of these

Q2. 5, 3, 6, 10, 9, 12, 17, 15, 18, 23

(a) 10 

(b) 9

(c) 12

(d) 17

(e) None of these

Q3. 0, 3, 8, 15, 27, 35, 48 

(a) 0 

(b) 3

(c) 8

(d) 15

(e) None of these

Q4. 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194 

(a) 14

(b) 26

(c) 48

(d) 95

(e) None of these

Q5. 12, 32, 72, 152, 314, 632

(a) 32

(b) 72

(c) 152

(d) 314

(e) None of these

Q6. A railway half ticket costs half the full fare. But the reservation charged on half ticket is the same as that on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket for a journey between two stations is Rs. 525 and the cost of one full and one half reserved first class tickets is Rs. 850. What is the reservation charge?

(a) Rs. 125

(b) Rs. 200 

(c) Rs. 145 

(d) Can’t be determined 

(e) None of these

Q7. Manish borrowed a sum of Rs. 1150 from Anil at the simple rate of 6% per annum for 3 yr. Then, he added some more money the borrowed sum and lent it to Sunil for the same time at 9% per annum at simple interest. If Manish gains Rs. 274.95 by way of interest on borrowed sum as well as his own amount from the whole transactions, then what is the sum lent by him to Sunil? 

(a) Rs. 1290

(b) Rs. 1785 

(c) Rs. 1285 

(d) Rs. 1200 

(e) None of these

Q8. While packing for a business trip Mr. Debashis has packed 3 pairs of shoes, 4 pants, 3 half-pants, 6 shirts, 3 sweater and 2 jackets. The outfit is defined as consisting of a pair of shoes, a choice of ‘lower wear’ (either a pant or a half-pant), a choice of ‘upper wear’ (it could be a shirt or a sweater or both) and finally he may or may not choose to wear a jacket. How many different outfits are possible?

(a) 567

(b) 1821

(c) 743

(d) 894

(e) None of these

Q9. The sum of five consecutive even numbers of set A is 280. What is the sum of different set B of five consecutive numbers whose lowest number is 71 less than double the lowest number of set A? 

(a) 182

(b) 165

(c) 172

(d) 175

(e) None of the above 

Q10. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two digit number is lesser than the original number by 54. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 12, then what is the original number?

(a) 28

(b) 39

(c) 82

(d) Can’t be determined 

(e) None of the above 

Directions (Q.11-15): What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions?

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Previous Years English Questions for SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2017

Dear Aspirants, SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam will be held from 1st August 2017 to 20 August 2017. You need to practice a lot in order to achieve 40+ marks in the English Section. We are providing quizzes which include sentence improvement, error detection, idioms, one-word substitution, reading comprehension, vocabulary related questions etc. Practice all these questions, if any doubt, post your queries in the comment section, we will answer surely.

Directions (1-10): These types of questions are designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. You will find incomplete sentences and beneath each sentence you will see words or phrases. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

Q1. The consumer price index lists __________.

(a) how a much cost every scooter

(b) how much does every car cost

(c) how much every car costs

(d) how much are every car cost

Q2. Canada does not require that US citizens obtain passports to enter the country, and __________.

(a) Mexico does neither

(b) Mexico doesn’t either

(c) neither Mexico does

(d) either does Mexico

Q3. As soon as __________ with an Arial salt, water is formed.

(a) a base will react 

(b) a base reacts

(c) a base is reacting

(d) the reaction of a base

Q4. Several of these washers and dryers are not in order and __________.

(a) need to be repairing

(b) repairing is required of them

(c) require that they be repaired

(d) need to be repaired

Q5. Thirty-eight national sites are known as parks, another eighty-two as monuments and __________.

(a) the another one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites

(b) the other one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites

(c) seventy-eight plus one hundred more as historical sites

(d) as historical sites one hundred seventy-eight

Q6. A telephone recording tells callers __________.

(a) what time the movie starts

(b) what time starts the movie

(c) what time does the movie starts

(d) the movie starts what time

Q7. To answer accurately is more important than __________.

(a) a quick finish

(b) finishing quickly

(c) to finish quickly

(d) you finish quickly

Q8. Having been selected to represent the Association of Indian Managers at the International Convention, __________.

(a) the members applauded him

(b) he gave a short acceptance speech

(c) a speech had to be given by him

(d) the members congratulated him

Q9. Not until a student has mastered algebra __________ the principals of geometry, trigonometry and physics.

(a) he can begin to understand

(b) can he begin to understand

(c) he begins to understand

(d) begins to understand

Q10. It costs about thirty rupees to have a tooth __________.

(a) filling

(b) filled

(c) to fill

(d) fill

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

Q11. Instrument with lenses for making very small objects appear larger.

(a) expander

(b) microscope

(c) forfeit

(d) telescope

Q12. Intelligent and intellectual class of society.

(a) literate

(b) intelligent

(c) intelligentsia

(d) intellectual

Q13. Life-history of a person written by himself.

(a) biography

(b) cartography

(c) autobiography

(d) bibliography

Q14. Life-history of a person written by another.

(a) biography

(b) autobiography

(c) cartography

(d) credentials

Q15. One whose wife is dead.

(a) widow

(b) widower

(c) spinster

(d) bachelor

Solutions

S1. Ans.(c) 

Sol. “how much every car costs”.  In option A, wrong word order, hence wrong. In option B, we don’t need auxiliary verb ‘does’. In option C, wrong verb ‘are’ usage. Only option C is correct, it is written in statement form of the sentence, not question form. Hence the correct answer choice. 

S2. Ans.(b) 

Sol. “Mexico doesn’t either”.  Only option B is correct because it follows the rule of parallelism. 

S3. Ans.(b) 

Sol. “a base reacts” we need simple present tense verb to convey the meaning of the sentence. Hence, option B is correct answer choice. 

S4. Ans.(d) 

Sol. “need to be repaired” correct word order and passive voice is used in option D only. Hence correct answer choice. 

S5. Ans.(b) 

Sol. “the other one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites”

S6. Ans.(a) 

Sol. “what time the movie starts”. A telephone recording tells callers what time the movie starts. 

we need statement form of the sentence. hence. option A is correct.  

S7. Ans.(c) 

Sol. “to finish quickly”. We need to maintain parallelism. 

S8. Ans.(b) 

Sol. “he gave a short acceptance speech”.  Option B complete the idea expressed in the given sentence. 

S9. Ans.(b) 

Sol. “can he begin to understand” this fits in the context of the sentence correct. Other options have faulty word structure.  

S10. Ans.(b) 

Sol.  ‘filled’ is correct verb form. 

S11. Ans.(b) 

Sol.  microscope- an optical instrument used for viewing very small objects, such as mineral samples or animal or plant cells, typically magnified several hundred times.

S12. Ans.(c) 

Sol.  intelligentsia- intellectuals or highly educated people as a group, especially when regarded as possessing culture and political influence.

S13. Ans.(c) 

Sol.  autobiography- an account of a person's life written by that person.

S14. Ans.(a) 

Sol.  biography-an account of someone's life written by someone else.

S15. Ans.(b) 

Sol.  widower- a man who has lost his spouse by death and has not married again.

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History Quiz-114 for SSC CHSL / CGL 2017

Dear Aspirants, SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam is near, now you need to pace up your studies. In GA Section, generally, 5 to 6 questions are asked from HISTORY PORTION. So we are providing 15 previous year questions everyday. these questions will help in improving your GENERAL AWARENESS portion.

Q1.Who is the author of the book 'Glimpses of World History' ?
(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) S. Gopalan
(d) S. Radhakrishnan
S1. Ans.(b)

Q2. The original name of Swami DayanandaSaraswati was 
(a) Abhi Shankar
(b) Gowri Shankar
(c) Daya Shankar
(d) Mula Shankar
S2. Ans.(d)

Q3. The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ was first applied to the Princely State of 
(a) Satara
(b) Jhansi
(c) Oudh
(d) Jaunpur
S3. Ans.(a)

Q4. Satyagraha finds expression in 
(a) Sudden outbursts of violence
(b) Armed conflicts
(c) Non-cooperation
(d) Communal riots
S4. Ans.(c)

Q5. In which of the following years, 26th January was celebrated as an independence day? 
(a) 1930
(b) 1929
(c) 1942
(d) 1946
S5. Ans.(a)

Q6. Who spoke : “At the stroke of midnight, when the world sleeps, India awakes to life and freedom”? 
(a) NetajiSubhas Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) C. Rajagopalachari
S6. Ans.(c)

Q7. The former princely state Nahan is part of which State now?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Himachal Pradesh
S7. Ans.(d)

Q8. The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942 in the month of 
(a) January
(b) March
(c) August
(d) December
S8. Ans.(c)

Q9. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’? 
(a) BalGangadharTilak
(b) DadabhaiNaoroji
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) LalaLajpatRai
S9. Ans.(b)

Q10. Who is rightly called the “Father of Local Self Government” in India? 
(a) Lord Mayo
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Clive
S10. Ans.(b)

Q11. India attained ‘Dominion Status’ on 
(a) 15th January, 1947
(b) 15th August, 1947
(c) 15th August, 1950
(d) 15th October, 1947
S11. Ans.(b)


Q12. The First Victory & Governor-General of British India was 
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Sir John Lawrence
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Canning
 S12. Ans.(d)

Q13. When did the British make English the medium of instruction in India? 
(a) 1813
(b) 1833
(c) 1835
(d) 1844
S13. Ans.(c)

Q14. During whose Veceroyship did the High Courts come into existence at the three presidential cities of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay? 
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) John Lawrence
(d) Lord Dalhousie
S14. Ans.(c)

Q15. The Kuka movement started in mid-Nineteenth century in 
(a) Western Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bengal
(d) Madhya Bharat
S15. Ans.(a)

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English Questions For RBI Grade B 2017 Exam

English Section is a topic quite dreaded by candidates taking the bank exams. Though the sheer number of concepts and rules may seem intimidating at first, with discipline and the right approach, it is not difficult to master these concepts and their application to questions. Through such quizzes, we will provide you all types of high-level questions.

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Even the names at Sutton Harbour give it away. While the pleasure boats, including Windfall and Felicity, gleam in the sunshine, the light warms rust on the decks of craft such as Pisces. The fishing industry is struggling to stay afloat in Plymouth, a port in Devon. Locals grumble about regulation, fuel costs and the dearth of crew. Revenues are stagnant and the facilities ageing. But if times are tough for the fishers, they may be tougher for the fish. In 2013, the most recent year for which full data are available, 32% of the world’s fish stocks were being exploited beyond their sustainable limit, up from 10% in the 1970s, according to the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation. The amount of fish caught at sea has been pretty much flat for the past three decades, but the share of the world’s fish stocks that are being plundered unsustainably has continued to increase.
Overfishing is not the only problem. Pollution, notably fertiliser run-off, damages a lot of marine ecosystems. There are estimated to be 5trn bits of plastic in the ocean, with over 8m tonnes of the stuff added every year. By the middle of the century the sea could contain more plastic than fish by weight, according to research done for the Ellen MacArthur Foundation. Not all the harm comes directly from the land; some comes via the sky. Carbon dioxide accumulating on the atmosphere has so far raised the world’s average sea surface temperature by about 0.7oC. This has effects at depth; when seas warm up they become more stratified, making it harder for nutrients in the waters below to rise to where they are most needed by fish and plankton. Given this, it might seem fortunate that the ocean absorbs a fair bit of that carbon dioxide, thus reducing the warming. But doing so changes the ocean’s chemistry, making it more acidic. This is a particular problem for creatures with calcium- carbonate shells—which includes not just crabs and oysters but quite a lot of larvae, too. Acidification makes carbonates more likely to dissolve.
It is hard to grasp the scale of such planetary changes, and impossible to say how much damage they will do. That is the way of things with the ocean; it is vast and human horizons are close. That something so immense could be put at risk just by people leading their daily lives seems inconceivable. But as with the atmosphere and the surface of the continents—where humans now move more sediments than the natural processes of erosion—the fact that something is vast does not mean humans cannot have profound impacts on it. For the sake of the hundreds of millions of people whose dependence on the ocean for livelihoods or sustenance, as well as for the sake of the ocean itself, these human impacts need to be reined in. There are signs that, where fishing is concerned, this may be coming about, not least because monitoring what goes on over the horizon is becoming ever easier. But there is a great deal left to do.

Q1. Which of the following are responsible for the damage caused to marine ecosystems?
A. Overfishing
B. Fertiliser run-off
C. Natural processes of erosion
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) A, B and C
(e) A and C

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. “Overfishing is not the only problem. Pollution, notably fertiliser run-off, damages a lot of marine ecosystems.” tells us that both overfishing and fertilizer run-off are responsible for the damage caused to marine ecosystems. It is nowhere mentioned in the given paragraph that “natural process of erosion” is responsible for damage to marine ecosystem.

Q2. What according to locals of Plymouth is responsible for the struggle of fishing industry to stay afloat?
A. Regulation
B. Fuel costs
C. Inadequate supply of the people who can sail a ship/boat
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) A and C
(e) A, B and C

S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. “The fishing industry is struggling to stay afloat in Plymouth, a port in Devon. Locals grumble about regulation, fuel costs and the dearth of crew.” tells us that locals held all the three options responsible for the struggle of fishing industry to stay afloat.

Q3.  Which of the following could be contained by the sea even more than fishes by the middle of the century?
(a) Fertilizers
(b) Acidification
(c) Carbonates
(d) Carbon dioxide
(e) Plastic

S3. Ans.(e)
Sol. “By the middle of the century the sea could contain more plastic than fish by weight, according to research done for the Ellen MacArthur Foundation.” tells us that plastic could be contained by the sea even more than fishes by the middle of the century.

Q4. What according to the writer is carbon dioxide responsible for?
A. Acidification
B. Stratification of seas
C. Water pollution
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
 (c) Only C
(d) A and B
(e) A, B and C

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. “Carbon dioxide accumulating on the atmosphere has so far raised the world’s average sea surface temperature by about 0.7oC. This has effects at depth; when seas warm up they become more stratified.” and “the ocean absorbs a fair bit of that carbon dioxide, thus reducing the warming. But doing so changes the ocean’s chemistry, making it more acidic.” tell us that carbon dioxide is responsible for Acidification and stratification of seas. It is nowhere mentioned in the passage that water pollution is caused by carbon dioxide.

Q5. What doesn’t let the nutrients reach the fishes and plankton?
(a) Overfishing
(b) Plastics
(c) Carbonates
(d) Stratification of seas
(e) None of these

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. “This has effects at depth; when seas warm up they become more stratified, making it harder for nutrients in the waters below to rise to where they are most needed by fish and plankton.” tells us that stratification of seas doesn’t let the nutrients reach the fishes and plankton.

Q6. In the following question, find the word that is most similar in the meaning to the word “grumble”?
(a) budge
(b) whinge
(c) disband
(d) plunder
(e) pillage

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Only whinge is the synonym of grumble.

Q7. In the following question, find the word that is most similar in the meaning to the word “dearth”?
(a) abundance
(b) shortage
(c) profusion
(d) plethora
(e) surfeit

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Dearth means shortage. No other word relates to dearth in any sense.

Q8. In the following question, find the word that is most similar in the meaning to the word “inconceivable”?
(a) surplus
(b) superfluous
(c) glut
(d) ludicrous
(e) flood

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Only ludicrous is the synonym of inconceivable.

Q9. Which of the following phrases would replace the phrase given in bold-“accumulating on the”?
(a) accumulating in the
(b) accumulating into
(c) accumulate into an
(d) accumulate in the
(e) no change

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only “accumulating in the” makes the sentence grammatically sound.

Q10. Which of the following phrases would replace the phrase given in bold-“whose dependence on the”?
(a) which depend on
(b) who depend on the
(c) which depend on the
(d) whose dependence onto
(e) no change required

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Only “who depend on the” makes the sentence grammatically sound.

Directions (11-15): In each question below, the word at the top of the question is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

Q11. CREDIT
(a) The writer complained that the credit at the end of the film did not mention his name.
(b) A long term credit has more to do with trust than with greed.
(c) He is such a noble character that he never takes any credit for his kindly acts.
(d) The boss’s assistant was quite willing to accept undeserved credit for the deal’s success.
(e) None of the above is incorrect.

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. Credits means to publicly acknowledge a contributor's role in the production of something published.

Q12. CLOSE
(a) The stores in this town close around 9 p.m. every day.
(b) The ship was closing with the island.
(c) In the final moments of the race she closed the distance to the lead racer.
(d) The nation closed the door to immigrants.
(e) None of the above is incorrect.

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘closed the door’ is an incorrect phrase.

Q13. MOVE
(a) The sun’s heat forced the hikers to move into the shade.
(b) He believes an MBA would help him in moving on the executive ladder.
(c) One cannot be too rigid in one’s views; must learn to move with the times.
(d) She was deeply moved by his acts of kindness.
(e) None of the above is incorrect.

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. The word ‘MOVE’ is inappropriate in the given context.

Q14. MARRY
(a) He decided to marry his daughter to his business partner’s son.
(b) Her parents agreed to marry her with the man of her choice.
(c) The girl got married into a prominent family.
(d) The priest will marry the boy and the girl in a proper ceremony.
(e) None of the above is incorrect.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. The word ‘MARRY’ is inappropriate because of preposition and verb form used in the given sentence.

Q15. PREVAIL
(a) They all hoped that at the end of all their struggles justice would prevail.
(b) The winds that prevail in the mountains are believed to be good for health.
(c) His courage and strength helped him prevail upon the enemy with ease.
(d) Can I prevail on you to stay for dinner?
(e) None of the above is incorrect.

S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. The word ‘PREVAIL’ is inappropriate in the given context.

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Quantitative Aptitude Questions for RBI Grade-B Phase-1 Exam

Practice is the key to perfection in Quant, so brush up your skills and test yourself with these 15 questions of Quantitative Aptitude for RBI Grade-B 2017.

Q1. The ratio between the number of passengers travelling by I and II classes between the two railway stations is 1 : 50, whereas the ratio of I and II classes fares between the same stations is 3 : 1. If on a particular day, Rs. 1325 were collected from the passengers travelling between these stations, then what was the amount collected from the II class passengers?

(a) Rs. 750 

(b) Rs. 1000

(c) Rs. 850 

(d) Rs. 1250 

(e) None of these

Q2. In a co-educational school there are 15 more girls than boys. If the number of girls is increased by 10% and the number of boys is also increased by 16% there would be nine more girls than boys. What is the number of students in the school?

(a) 140

(b) 125

(c) 265

(d) 255

(e) None of these

Q3. The average monthly salary of employees, consisting of officers and workers of an organization is Rs. 3000. The average salary of an officer is Rs. 10000 while that of a worker is Rs. 2000 per month. If there are total 400 employees in the organization, find the number of officers and workers separately. 

(a) 50, 350

(b) 350, 50 

(c) 250, 150

(d) 150, 250

(e) None of these

Q4. Mr. Pandit owned 950 gold coins all of which he distributed amongst his three daughters Lalita, Amita and Neeta. Lalita gave 25 gold coins to her husband, Amita donated 15 gold coins and Neeta made jewellery out of 30 gold coins. The new respective ratio of the coins left with them was 20 : 73 : 83. How many gold coins did Amita receive from Mr. Pandit?

(a) 380

(b) 415

(c) 400

(d) 350

(e) None of these

Q5. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4 : 5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in the ratio 4 : 11 : 9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(a) 255°

(b) 260°

(c) 265°

(d) 270°

(e) None of these

Q6. Vijay purchased two different kinds of alcohol. In the first mixture the ratio of alcohol to water is 3 : 4 and in the second mixture it is 5 : 6. If he mixes the two given mixture and makes a third mixture of 18 litres in which the ratio of alcohol to water is 4 : 5, the quantity of the first mixture (whose ratio is 3 : 4) that is required to make 18 litres of the third kind of mixture is 

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

(e) None of these

Q7. Three partners invested capital in the ratio 2 : 7 : 9. The time period for which each of them invested was in the ratio of the reciprocals of the amount invested. Find the share of  profit of the partner who brought in the highest capital, If profit is Rs. 1080. 

(a) Rs. 120 

(b) Rs. 360 

(c) Rs. 540 

(d) Rs. 420 

(e) None of these

Q8. A vendor sells calculators at the rate of Rs. 250 each and earns a commission of 20% on each. He also sells pens at the rate of Rs. 50 each and earns a commission of 10% on each. How much amount of commission will he earn in three days if he sells 10 calculators and 5 pens a day?

(a)Rs. 1,575

(b)Rs. 1,445

(c)Rs. 1,550 

(d)Rs. 1,450 

(e) None of these

Q9. A sum of Rs. 30600 is divided between Anjali and Arun, who are respectively 18 and 19 yr old, in such a way that if their shares are invested at 4% per annum compounded annually, they shall receive the same amount on reaching 21 yr of age. What is the share of Anjali?

(a) Rs. 16000

(b) Rs. 15000 

(c) Rs. 15600

(d) Rs. 14600

(e) None of these

Q10. A journey of 192 km between two cities takes two hours less by a fast train than by a slow train. If the average speed of the slow train is 16 km/hr less than that of the fast train, then the average speed of the fast train is

(a) 36 km/hr

(b) 64 km/hr

(c) 7 km/hr

(d) 48 km/hr

(e) None of these

Directions (Q.11-15): What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in following number series problems?

Q11. 33, 39, 57, 87, 129, ?

(a) 183

(b) 177

(c) 189

(d) 199

(e) None of these

Q12. 19, 26, 40, 68, 124, ?

(a) 246

(b) 238

(c) 236

(d) 256

(e) None of these

Q13. 1,     3,     10,    48,    ?,    6432

(a) 208

(b) 380

(c) 400

(d) 360

(e) 440

Q14. 21, 23, 37, 71, 133, ?

(a) 321 

(b) 231

(c) 319 

(d) 237 

(e) 235

Q15. 36,     20,      ?,      8,     6,      5

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 14

(d) 16

(e) None of these

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